Diabetes Mellitus AKP Total 60 MCQs. Click ‘Start’ to begin or resume. Save progress if needed. 0% Report a question What's wrong with this question? You cannot submit an empty report. Please add some details. AKP Practice 1 / 60 Category: Diabetes Mellitus A 12-year-old girl attends the paediatric outpatient clinic for a routine diabetes screening. She has a strong family history of Type 2 diabetes, with both parents affected, and reports being asymptomatic, denying polyuria, polydipsia, or recent weight loss. On examination, she is alert and well, with a Body Mass Index plotted on the 98th centile. Her initial fasting glucose was 7.4 mmol/L, and a repeat test one week later was 7.8 mmol/L. What is the most likely diagnosis? A) Impaired Fasting Glycaemia (pre-diabetes) B) Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus C) Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus D) Normal glycaemia E) Impaired Glucose Tolerance CORRECT ANSWER: According to World Health Organization criteria, adopted by NICE, a fasting plasma glucose level of 7.0 mmol/L or greater on two separate occasions is diagnostic for diabetes mellitus. This patient's results of 7.4 mmol/L and 7.8 mmol/L clearly meet this diagnostic threshold. The diagnosis is Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus due to the strong supporting clinical evidence; she is obese with a BMI on the 98th centile, asymptomatic, and has a significant family history. While Type 1 is more common in paediatrics, the incidence of Type 2 is rising, particularly in children with these risk factors. The lack of osmotic symptoms like polyuria or polydipsia further points away from the typical acute presentation of Type 1 diabetes. WRONG ANSWER ANALYSIS: Option A (Impaired Fasting Glycaemia) is incorrect as this diagnosis requires a fasting glucose in the range of 6.1-6.9 mmol/L. Option B (Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus) is less likely because the presentation with obesity and an absence of symptoms is characteristic of insulin resistance, which is central to Type 2 diabetes. Option D (Normal glycaemia) is incorrect because a normal fasting glucose level is below 6.1 mmol/L. Option E (Impaired Glucose Tolerance) is incorrect as it is a diagnosis made following an oral glucose tolerance test, not from fasting results alone. 2 / 60 Category: Diabetes Mellitus A 4-year-old girl is reviewed on the paediatric ward after admission for acute gastroenteritis. Despite initial rehydration and an intravenous dextrose bolus, she remains persistently hypoglycaemic. On examination, she is lethargic but rousable, with clammy skin and a normal heart rate. Her current weight is 16 kg, and a repeat capillary blood glucose is 2.5 mmol/L. The paediatric registrar decides to commence an intravenous fluid infusion to provide a glucose infusion rate of 8 mg/kg/min. What is the most appropriate rate of infusion in ml/hr, using 10% Dextrose? A) 7.7 ml/hr B) 12.8 ml/hr C) 76.8 ml/hr D) 128 ml/hr E) 19.2 ml/hr CORRECT ANSWER: This child has refractory hypoglycaemia, defined as a blood glucose level remaining below 2.6 mmol/L despite an intravenous bolus of dextrose. The immediate priority, as per RCPCH and APLS guidelines, is to establish a continuous intravenous glucose infusion to prevent neurological injury. The Glucose Infusion Rate (GIR) is calculated to match the body's normal glucose production. A starting GIR of 5-8 mg/kg/min is appropriate for a child of this age. The calculation is: GIR (mg/kg/min) x weight (kg) x 60 (minutes) to find the total mg of glucose needed per hour. This is then divided by the concentration of the dextrose solution in mg/ml. Calculation: (8 mg/kg/min x 16 kg x 60 min/hr) / 100 mg/ml = 76.8 ml/hr. WRONG ANSWER ANALYSIS: Option A (7.7 ml/hr) is incorrect as it results from incorrectly calculating 10% Dextrose as 1000 mg/ml, a decimal place error in concentration. Option B (12.8 ml/hr) is incorrect as it results from miscalculating the concentration of 10% Dextrose as 10 mg/ml instead of 100 mg/ml. Option D (128 ml/hr) is incorrect as this value represents the required mg of glucose per minute (8 mg/kg/min x 16 kg), not the final infusion rate in ml per hour. Option E (19.2 ml/hr) is incorrect as this rate would deliver a GIR of only 2 mg/kg/min, which is sub-therapeutic and an inappropriate starting point for this clinical scenario. 3 / 60 Category: Diabetes Mellitus A 15-year-old boy attends his annual review in the paediatric respiratory clinic. He has cystic fibrosis, diagnosed neonatally, and reports being generally well with no new respiratory or gastrointestinal symptoms, maintaining his usual weight. On examination, he is afebrile, normotensive, and has stable lung function. As part of his scheduled screening, an oral glucose tolerance test was performed, revealing a fasting glucose of 6.2 mmol/L and a 2-hour glucose level of 12.1 mmol/L. What is the most likely diagnosis? A) Cystic Fibrosis-Related Diabetes (CFRD) B) Impaired Glucose Tolerance (IGT) C) Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus D) Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus E) Normal result CORRECT ANSWER: The diagnosis is Cystic Fibrosis-Related Diabetes (CFRD). According to UK Cystic Fibrosis Trust guidelines, annual screening with an Oral Glucose Tolerance Test (OGTT) should commence from 10 years of age. The diagnostic criterion for CFRD is a 2-hour plasma glucose level of 11.1 mmol/L or greater, which this patient has met. It is crucial to note that fasting glucose may be normal or only mildly elevated, as seen here, and the patient can be asymptomatic in the early stages. HbA1c is not a reliable screening or diagnostic tool in CF due to factors like increased red cell turnover, which can lead to a falsely low reading. Early diagnosis and initiation of insulin therapy are vital, not just for glycaemic control, but because untreated CFRD is linked with a decline in lung function and poorer nutritional status. WRONG ANSWER ANALYSIS: Option B (Impaired Glucose Tolerance) is incorrect because the 2-hour glucose of 12.1 mmol/L is above the 7.8-11.0 mmol/L range that defines IGT. Option C (Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus) is less likely as the pathophysiology of CFRD is primarily insulin insufficiency from progressive pancreatic fibrosis, not the autoimmune beta-cell destruction characteristic of Type 1 DM. Option D (Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus) is incorrect because although some insulin resistance exists, the predominant pathology in CFRD is insulin deficiency, unlike the primary insulin resistance seen in Type 2 DM. Option E (Normal result) is incorrect as a 2-hour glucose level above 7.8 mmol/L is abnormal. 4 / 60 Category: Diabetes Mellitus A 14-year-old boy with Down Syndrome attends his annual review in the community paediatrics clinic. His mother reports no recent concerns regarding his health, and he has been generally well without any changes in appetite or energy levels. He denies polyuria or polydipsia. On examination, his weight is 75 kg and height is 150 cm, placing his body mass index above the 98th centile. A routine screening blood test, performed as part of his annual health surveillance, reveals a haemoglobin A1c of 50 mmol/mol. What is the most appropriate next step in his management? A) Reassure and check in 1 year B) Start oral Metformin C) Refer for autoantibody testing D) Start basal insulin E) Repeat HbA1c to confirm the result CORRECT ANSWER: According to NICE and ISPAD guidelines, a diagnosis of Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus (T2DM) can be made with an HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol or greater. This patient's result of 50 mmol/mol is therefore in the diabetic range. However, a crucial aspect of this scenario is that the patient is asymptomatic. In the absence of unequivocal symptoms of hyperglycaemia (such as polyuria and polydipsia), the test must be repeated to confirm the diagnosis before any management is initiated. This prevents misdiagnosis based on a single blood sample which could be subject to error. Although this patient has significant risk factors for T2DM, including Down Syndrome and obesity, the diagnostic protocol must be strictly followed. The priority is to confirm the diagnosis before considering treatment or further classification. WRONG ANSWER ANALYSIS: Option A (Reassure and check in 1 year) is incorrect as an HbA1c of 50 mmol/mol is a significant result that requires urgent confirmation, not dismissal. Option B (Start oral Metformin) is incorrect because treatment should not be commenced until the diagnosis of diabetes is unequivocally confirmed with a second test. Option C (Refer for autoantibody testing) is incorrect because while this is vital for differentiating between Type 1 and Type 2 diabetes, the immediate next step is to first confirm the diagnosis of diabetes itself. Option D (Start basal insulin) is incorrect as this is not the first-line therapy for an asymptomatic patient with suspected T2DM, and treatment is not yet indicated. 5 / 60 Category: Diabetes Mellitus A 7-year-old girl attends her GP with her mother, who reports a three-week history of polyuria and polydipsia, requiring frequent night-time toilet trips. Despite a good appetite, she has lost approximately 2 kg over this period. On examination, she is alert, afebrile, and her capillary refill time is less than 2 seconds. A random venous plasma glucose level is urgently measured. Which of the following results would confirm a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus? A) Positive anti-GAD antibodies with normoglycaemia B) A fasting venous glucose 6.5 mmol/L C) An HbA1c 42 mmol/mol (6.0%) D) A 2-hour OGTT glucose 10.0 mmol/L E) A random venous glucose 11.1 mmol/L with symptoms CORRECT ANSWER: According to NICE and WHO criteria, the presence of classic osmotic symptoms (polyuria, polydipsia, weight loss) combined with a random venous plasma glucose of 11.1 mmol/L or more is diagnostic of diabetes mellitus. This presentation represents the most common and urgent clinical scenario in paediatrics, often indicating significant insulin deficiency. Immediate referral to the specialist paediatric diabetes team on the same day is mandatory to confirm the diagnosis, assess for diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), and initiate urgent management. This rapid action is critical to prevent progression to DKA, a life-threatening emergency. The combination of clear symptoms and significant hyperglycaemia provides a definitive diagnosis without delay for further testing. WRONG ANSWER ANALYSIS: Option A (Positive anti-GAD antibodies with normoglycaemia) is incorrect because although these antibodies indicate autoimmune risk, diabetes is a clinical and biochemical diagnosis requiring evidence of hyperglycaemia. Option B (A fasting venous glucose 6.5 mmol/L) is incorrect because the diagnostic threshold for a fasting plasma glucose is 7.0 mmol/L or greater. Option C (An HbA1c 42 mmol/mol (6.0%)) is incorrect as the diagnostic cut-off for HbA1c is 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) or higher. Option D (A 2-hour OGTT glucose 10.0 mmol/L) is incorrect because the value must be 11.1 mmol/L or more on a 2-hour oral glucose tolerance test. 6 / 60 Category: Diabetes Mellitus A 13-year-old girl attends the paediatric diabetes clinic for her routine review. She was diagnosed with Type 1 diabetes mellitus two months ago and initially stabilised well on insulin. Her parents report increasing episodes of symptomatic hypoglycaemia, often requiring rescue carbohydrates, over the past three weeks. On examination, she is alert and well, with no signs of dehydration or weight loss. Her initial total daily insulin dose was 0.8 units/kg, but this has recently been reduced to 0.2 units/kg/day to maintain stable blood glucose levels and prevent further hypoglycaemia. Which of the following terms best describes this clinical phase? A) Honeymoon period B) Somogyi effect C) Dawn phenomenon D) Insulin resistance E) Glucotoxicity CORRECT ANSWER: Following the diagnosis of Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus and the commencement of exogenous insulin, the pancreatic beta-cells are rested from the effects of glucotoxicity. This allows for a temporary recovery of some residual beta-cell function and endogenous insulin secretion. Clinically, this manifests as a significant, and often rapid, decrease in the patient's requirement for injected insulin, frequently accompanied by an increased risk of hypoglycaemia. This is a well-recognised phase in newly diagnosed paediatric patients. Management, as per NICE guidelines, involves careful downward titration of insulin doses to prevent hypoglycaemia while educating the family that this period is transient and insulin requirements will rise again in the future. WRONG ANSWER ANALYSIS: Option B (Somogyi effect) is incorrect as it describes rebound hyperglycaemia in the morning following nocturnal hypoglycaemia, which is not the pattern described. Option C (Dawn phenomenon) is incorrect because it is characterised by early morning hyperglycaemia due to hormonal surges, leading to increased, not decreased, insulin needs. Option D (Insulin resistance) is incorrect as this condition would cause an increase in insulin requirements to maintain glycaemic control. Option E (Glucotoxicity) is incorrect as it refers to the impaired beta-cell function caused by chronic hyperglycaemia before treatment is initiated, whereas this scenario describes a recovery after starting insulin. 7 / 60 Category: Diabetes Mellitus A 3-year-old boy is brought to the Paediatric Assessment Unit by his mother. She reports a persistent and severe nappy rash for the past three weeks, which a GP confirmed as candida and has not responded to topical treatment. For the past few weeks, she notes he has also been drinking excessively, passing large volumes of urine, and seems more tired. On examination, he is alert but appears lethargic with dry mucous membranes. A review of his growth chart shows his weight has recently dropped from the 50th to the 25th centile. His temperature is 37.1 °C, heart rate 110 bpm, and respiratory rate 24 breaths/min. Which of the following is the most important immediate investigation? A) Capillary blood glucose and urine ketones B) Fungal swab of the nappy rash C) Full blood count and CRP D) Urine culture (MSU) E) Trial of Clotrimazole cream CORRECT ANSWER: The clinical triad of polydipsia, weight loss, and persistent candidiasis is a classical presentation of new-onset Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus (T1DM). The severe candida infection is secondary to glycosuria, which creates a favourable environment for fungal growth. The most critical immediate step is to assess for hyperglycaemia and ketosis. This is a potential paediatric emergency, as delayed diagnosis can lead to Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA). NICE guidelines state that children with suspected T1DM should be referred immediately for specialist assessment. A point-of-care capillary blood glucose and ketone test provides a rapid diagnosis, enabling prompt initiation of treatment and preventing progression to severe DKA. This investigation directly addresses the most life-threatening potential diagnosis. WRONG ANSWER ANALYSIS: Option B (Fungal swab of the nappy rash) is incorrect because it only confirms the secondary infection, failing to address the urgent underlying systemic cause suggested by the history. Option C (Full blood count and CRP) is incorrect because these inflammatory markers are non-specific and would not confirm the primary diagnosis of T1DM or DKA. Option D (Urine culture (MSU)) is incorrect because while a urinary tract infection is possible, it is a less immediate concern than confirming hyperglycaemia and ruling out DKA. Option E (Trial of Clotrimazole cream) is incorrect because empirical treatment of the rash ignores the significant systemic symptoms of weight loss and polydipsia, dangerously delaying the diagnosis of T1DM. 8 / 60 Category: Diabetes Mellitus A 16-year-old boy attends the paediatric endocrinology clinic. He was referred after an incidental finding of hyperglycaemia during a routine sports medical check-up two weeks ago. He reports no polyuria, polydipsia, weight loss, or fatigue. On examination, his body mass index is within the normal range (50th centile), and he appears well. Investigations reveal a fasting glucose of 8.2 mmol/L, and a urine sample is negative for ketones. Diabetes-specific autoantibodies (GAD, IA-2, ZnT8) are not detected. His paternal grandfather, father, and aunt all have a diagnosis of diabetes. What is the most likely diagnosis? A) Latent Autoimmune Diabetes in Adults (LADA) B) Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus C) Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus D) Maturity-Onset Diabetes of the Young (MODY) E) Impaired Fasting Glycaemia CORRECT ANSWER: This patient presents with the classic triad for monogenic diabetes: non-ketotic, asymptomatic hyperglycaemia; a strong, multi-generational family history suggesting autosomal dominant inheritance; and negative diabetes-specific autoantibodies. These features strongly point away from autoimmune (Type 1) or insulin-resistance-related (Type 2) diabetes. The mild, stable fasting hyperglycaemia is particularly characteristic of a glucokinase (GCK) gene mutation (formerly MODY2), which acts as a faulty glucose sensor. According to NICE and RCPCH guidance, a diagnosis of monogenic diabetes should be actively considered in children and young people with these features, and referral for genetic testing is the crucial next step to confirm the specific subtype and guide management, which often differs significantly from other diabetes types. WRONG ANSWER ANALYSIS: Option A (Latent Autoimmune Diabetes in Adults) is incorrect as it is characterised by the presence of autoantibodies and typically presents later in adult life. Option B (Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus) is incorrect because the absence of autoantibodies and clinical symptoms like polyuria or weight loss makes an autoimmune aetiology highly unlikely. Option C (Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus) is less likely given the patient is not obese, a key risk factor for insulin resistance, and the inheritance pattern is more strongly suggestive of a monogenic cause. Option E (Impaired Fasting Glycaemia) is incorrect because a fasting glucose of 8.2 mmol/L is above the diagnostic threshold for diabetes mellitus (>7.0 mmol/L). 9 / 60 Category: Diabetes Mellitus A 6-year-old boy presents to the Paediatric A&E. His mother reports a one-week history of increasing lethargy, polydipsia, and new-onset nocturnal enuresis, estimating a 2 kg visible weight loss. He has no significant past medical history or family history of early-onset diabetes. On examination, he is alert but appears tired, with dry mucous membranes. Capillary refill time is 2 seconds. His random blood glucose is 22 mmol/L, and a urine dipstick shows 4+ for ketones, 3+ glucose, and no nitrites or leucocytes. What is the most appropriate initial investigation to confirm the specific type of diabetes? A) Islet autoantibodies (anti-GAD, anti-IA2) B) C-peptide and insulin levels C) HbA1c D) Genetic testing for MODY E) Fasting lipids and renal function CORRECT ANSWER: The clinical presentation of polyuria (inferred from enuresis), lethargy, weight loss, and significant hyperglycaemia with ketonuria is a classic picture of new-onset Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus (T1DM) in childhood. According to NICE and RCPCH principles, immediate referral to a specialist paediatric diabetes team is mandatory. While the diagnosis of diabetes mellitus is clear clinically and biochemically, confirming the autoimmune aetiology is the next crucial step. Islet autoantibodies (such as anti-GAD and anti-IA2) are present in over 90% of children at diagnosis of T1DM. Identifying these autoantibodies confirms the autoimmune basis of the disease, definitively distinguishing it from other forms of diabetes like Type 2 or monogenic diabetes (MODY), and guiding long-term management. WRONG ANSWER ANALYSIS: Option B (C-peptide and insulin levels) is incorrect because while these levels will be low, they are more useful later if the diagnosis is uncertain, as they can be variable in the initial 'honeymoon' period. Option C (HbA1c) is incorrect as it reflects the average glucose over the preceding 2-3 months and is a tool for monitoring long-term control, not for the initial classification of diabetes type in an acute presentation. Option D (Genetic testing for MODY) is incorrect because MODY is rare, typically presents with a strong family history, and lacks the autoimmune features and ketosis seen in this child's presentation. Option E (Fasting lipids and renal function) is incorrect because these are baseline assessments for monitoring future complications, not for determining the underlying cause of the diabetes itself. 10 / 60 Category: Diabetes Mellitus A 15-year-old boy is reviewed in the paediatric outpatient clinic. His mother reports a two-month history of increased thirst and polyuria, requiring him to wake multiple times at night. He has gained weight recently, and his body mass index is plotted above the 99th centile. On examination, he is generally well, with a dark, velvety rash, consistent with acanthosis nigricans, visible on his neck. There are no signs of dehydration or significant weight loss. A random blood glucose is 16 mmol/L, and a urine dipstick is negative for ketones, protein, and blood. He has no history of steroid use or recurrent abdominal pain. What is the most likely diagnosis? A) Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus B) Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus C) Maturity-Onset Diabetes of the Young (MODY) D) Steroid-induced hyperglycaemia E) Pancreatic insufficiency CORRECT ANSWER: This adolescent's presentation is a textbook case of Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus (T2DM). According to NICE guidance, T2DM should be strongly suspected in children and young people who are obese and show evidence of insulin resistance. His significant obesity (BMI >99th centile) and the presence of acanthosis nigricans, a cutaneous marker of hyperinsulinaemia and insulin resistance, are the key diagnostic clues. The hyperglycaemia (random glucose 16 mmol/L) confirms diabetes, while the absence of urinary ketones indicates that there is still sufficient endogenous insulin production to prevent the breakdown of fat for energy, a process characteristic of the absolute insulin deficiency seen in Type 1 Diabetes. The combination of obesity, insulin resistance markers, and non-ketotic hyperglycaemia makes T2DM the most probable diagnosis, reflecting a growing public health issue in UK paediatrics. WRONG ANSWER ANALYSIS: Option B (Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus) is less likely because it typically presents with weight loss and significant ketosis due to autoimmune-mediated absolute insulin deficiency. Option C (Maturity-Onset Diabetes of the Young) is incorrect as MODY is a monogenic form of diabetes not typically associated with profound obesity or signs of insulin resistance like acanthosis nigricans. Option D (Steroid-induced hyperglycaemia) is incorrect because there is no history of exogenous steroid administration mentioned in the clinical scenario. Option E (Pancreatic insufficiency) is incorrect as diabetes secondary to this (Type 3c) is rare in this age group and would usually be accompanied by symptoms of exocrine failure, such as steatorrhoea and malabsorption. 11 / 60 Category: Diabetes Mellitus A 7-year-old girl attends her General Practitioner with her mother. She has a three-week history of increasing thirst (polydipsia), frequent urination (polyuria), and has lost approximately 2 kg in weight. On examination, she appears tired but is alert and well-perfused; her mucous membranes are slightly dry. A point-of-care capillary glucose is 18.5 mmol/L. What is the most appropriate next step in management? A) Perform an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) B) Perform a fasting blood glucose test C) Refer for same-day urgent paediatric assessment D) Check HbA1c and autoantibodies E) Reassure and monitor diet for 1 week CORRECT ANSWER: The triad of polyuria, polydipsia, and weight loss, combined with a random plasma glucose exceeding 11.1 mmol/L, is diagnostic of diabetes mellitus. According to NICE guideline NG18, children and young people with suspected type 1 diabetes must be referred for immediate, same-day assessment to a specialist multidisciplinary paediatric diabetes team. This urgency is driven by the high risk of rapid deterioration into diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), a life-threatening emergency characterised by hyperglycaemia, ketosis, and metabolic acidosis. Any delay for further investigation in primary care is inappropriate and potentially dangerous. The priority is to confirm the diagnosis in a specialist setting, assess for DKA, and promptly initiate insulin therapy and fluid management. This immediate referral pathway is the standard of care in the UK to prevent the significant morbidity and mortality associated with DKA. WRONG ANSWER ANALYSIS: Option A (Perform an oral glucose tolerance test) is incorrect as an OGTT is a diagnostic tool for situations of diagnostic uncertainty, such as asymptomatic hyperglycaemia, and is not required or appropriate in this acute, symptomatic presentation. Option B (Perform a fasting blood glucose test) is incorrect because the presence of clear symptoms and a high random glucose already meets the diagnostic criteria, making further diagnostic tests in the community an unnecessary and unsafe delay. Option D (Check HbA1c and autoantibodies) is incorrect because while these tests are important for long-term management and confirming the autoimmune aetiology, they are not the immediate priority and should be performed by the specialist team. Option E (Reassure and monitor diet for 1 week) is incorrect as this approach would dangerously postpone essential treatment, placing the child at a very high and imminent risk of developing severe diabetic ketoacidosis. 12 / 60 Category: Diabetes Mellitus A 2-year-old boy with type 1 diabetes mellitus is assessed at home following an acute event. This morning, his parents found him unresponsive and administered intramuscular glucagon as per his emergency care plan. He regained consciousness after 10 minutes, but his parents report he has since vomited twice. On assessment, he is drowsy but rousable, pale, and clammy. His capillary blood glucose is 4.1 mmol/L. He is able to swallow sips of water without difficulty, and his respiratory effort is normal. What is the most important next step in his management? A) Re-check BG in 1 hour B) Check his blood ketones C) Give IV Ondansetron D) Call 999 for admission E) Give a carbohydrate-containing snack or drink CORRECT ANSWER: The administration of intramuscular (IM) glucagon for severe hypoglycaemia works by stimulating hepatic glycogenolysis, leading to a transient rise in blood glucose. This effect typically lasts for a short period. The most critical next step, as soon as the child is conscious and able to swallow, is to provide a fast-acting oral carbohydrate. This action is essential to replenish glucose stores and prevent a subsequent, rapid drop in blood glucose levels once the effect of the glucagon wears off. Vomiting is a very common and expected side effect of glucagon, but preventing recurrent, potentially life-threatening hypoglycaemia remains the absolute priority. National guidelines emphasise the need for oral carbohydrates as the definitive first-line treatment following emergency glucagon administration. WRONG ANSWER ANALYSIS: Option A (Re-check BG in 1 hour) is incorrect because this delay is unsafe; a repeat blood glucose check should be performed 10-15 minutes after the carbohydrate snack to ensure an adequate response. Option B (Check his blood ketones) is incorrect because while important in the overall assessment of a diabetic child, the immediate life-threatening issue is the prevention of recurrent hypoglycaemia, not diagnosing ketosis. Option C (Give IV Ondansetron) is incorrect because treating the vomiting, a known side effect of glucagon, is secondary to the critical need to stabilise the blood glucose with oral carbohydrates. Option D (Call 999 for admission) is incorrect as this may not be necessary if the child recovers well, and the immediate priority is to give oral carbohydrates to stabilise the situation before making a decision about admission. 13 / 60 Category: Diabetes Mellitus A 6-month-old male infant is admitted to the paediatric ward following a new-onset generalised tonic-clonic seizure. His parents report increasing lethargy and poor feeding over the past 24 hours. On examination, he is pale and drowsy with normal liver span. An immediate capillary blood glucose measurement was 1.8 mmol/L. A critical blood sample taken during hypoglycaemia revealed plasma glucose 1.8 mmol/L, beta-hydroxybutyrate 0.2 mmol/L, insulin 12 mU/L, cortisol 450 nmol/L, and growth hormone 15 mU/L. He requires a high glucose infusion rate to maintain normoglycaemia. A trial of oral diazoxide has been initiated but proves ineffective at controlling the hypoglycaemia. What is the most appropriate next step in this infant's management? A) Genetic testing for K-ATP channel mutation B) Start oral cornstarch feeds C) Start oral Hydrocortisone D) Stop Diazoxide and start Octreotide E) Refer for partial pancreatectomy CORRECT ANSWER: The critical sample confirms hyperinsulinaemic hypoglycaemia. The failure to respond to Diazoxide strongly suggests a diagnosis of congenital hyperinsulinism (CHI) secondary to a potassium ATP (K-ATP) channel mutation. National guidelines for the management of CHI prioritise genetic testing at this stage. The results are critical for distinguishing between diffuse and focal forms of the disease, which have fundamentally different management pathways. Identifying a paternally inherited K-ATP mutation, for example, raises the high probability of a focal lesion which is curable with a limited partial pancreatectomy. Conversely, biallelic mutations typically cause diffuse disease, which requires long-term medical therapy (such as Octreotide) and may ultimately necessitate a near-total pancreatectomy if refractory. Therefore, genetic testing is the essential next investigation to guide definitive treatment. WRONG ANSWER ANALYSIS: Option B (Start oral cornstarch feeds) is incorrect as cornstarch is used to manage glycogen storage disorders, not hyperinsulinism. Option C (Start oral Hydrocortisone) is incorrect because the patient's cortisol level is appropriately elevated, indicating a normal stress response, and it is not a primary therapy for CHI. Option D (Stop Diazoxide and start Octreotide) is incorrect because while Octreotide is the next medical step, proceeding without genetic results misses the opportunity to identify a surgically curable focal lesion. Option E (Refer for partial pancreatectomy) is incorrect as surgery is only appropriate for proven focal disease, a diagnosis which relies on genetic testing and specialised imaging. 14 / 60 Category: Diabetes Mellitus A 1-year-old girl is admitted to the paediatric ward. She presents with a 24-hour history of poor feeding and increasing lethargy, following a viral illness. Her parents report reduced wet nappies. On examination, she is drowsy but rousable, with dry mucous membranes and a capillary refill time of 3 seconds. Her weight is 10 kg. Initial bloods show a glucose of 2.1 mmol/L. The registrar has determined she requires a glucose infusion rate of 10 mg/kg/min to manage her hypoglycaemia. The highest concentration of dextrose that can be safely administered via her peripheral cannula is 12.5%. What is the most appropriate rate in ml/hr at which to administer this fluid? A) 48 ml/hr B) 12.5 ml/hr C) 100 ml/hr D) 24 ml/hr E) 60 ml/hr CORRECT ANSWER: Calculating the correct fluid rate to meet a specific Glucose Infusion Rate (GIR) is a critical skill in paediatrics, essential for managing neonatal hypoglycaemia and supporting metabolic demands in sick infants. The priority is to provide adequate glucose to prevent neuroglycopenic injury while avoiding fluid overload. The calculation follows a logical sequence. First, determine the total hourly glucose requirement in milligrams: 10 mg/kg/min x 10 kg x 60 minutes/hour = 6000 mg/hour. Next, calculate the glucose concentration in the available fluid: 12.5% Dextrose means 12.5g in 100ml, which is 12,500mg in 100ml, simplifying to 125 mg per ml. Finally, divide the total hourly glucose need by the concentration to find the required fluid rate: 6000 mg/hr / 125 mg/ml = 48 ml/hr. This rate precisely delivers the target GIR. NICE guidelines emphasise careful fluid and electrolyte management, and this calculation is a fundamental component of safe prescribing. WRONG ANSWER ANALYSIS: Option B (12.5 ml/hr) is incorrect as this rate would deliver a GIR far below the required 10 mg/kg/min, risking persistent hypoglycaemia. Option C (100 ml/hr) is incorrect because it represents the total daily maintenance fluid requirement for a 10kg child based on the Holliday-Segar formula (100ml/kg/day), not the specific rate for this GIR. Option D (24 ml/hr) is incorrect and may result from calculation errors, such as dividing the final result by two, leading to an insufficient glucose supply. Option E (60 ml/hr) is incorrect and likely arises from miscalculation, possibly by incorrectly converting minutes to hours or misinterpreting the dextrose concentration. 15 / 60 Category: Diabetes Mellitus A 12-year-old boy presents to the Emergency Department following a witnessed tonic-clonic seizure at home. He has a history of poorly controlled Type 1 diabetes mellitus, with reported erratic eating patterns and frequent missed insulin doses. On arrival, he is drowsy and unrousable. Pre-hospital assessment by the ambulance crew revealed a capillary blood glucose level of 1.4 mmol/L, for which 1.0 mg of intramuscular glucagon was administered. Fifteen minutes later, his Glasgow Coma Scale remains 9, and his repeat capillary blood glucose is 1.6 mmol/L. His heart rate is 90 bpm, respiratory rate 18/min, and oxygen saturations 98% on air. There are no signs of urticaria or rash. What is the most likely explanation for the ineffective response to treatment? A) Glucagon allergy B) Incorrect Glucagon dose C) Insulin resistance D) Depleted hepatic glycogen stores E) Cerebral oedema CORRECT ANSWER: Glucagon's primary mechanism in treating hypoglycaemia is stimulating hepatic glycogenolysis. In a child with a history of poor glycaemic control, it is highly probable that their hepatic glycogen stores are severely depleted due to factors like poor nutrition and recurrent, unrecognised hypoglycaemic episodes. Glucagon requires adequate glycogen stores to be effective; without this substrate, it cannot facilitate the release of glucose into the bloodstream. This treatment failure is a key clinical indicator that immediate intravenous access for dextrose administration is the priority, as per national guidelines for severe hypoglycaemia. This scenario tests the practical understanding that pre-hospital or initial treatments may be ineffective based on the patient's underlying physiological state. WRONG ANSWER ANALYSIS: Option A (Glucagon allergy) is incorrect because an allergic reaction would manifest with signs such as urticaria or anaphylaxis, not a failure to raise blood glucose. Option B (Incorrect Glucagon dose) is incorrect because 1.0 mg is the standard and appropriate dose for a child over the age of 8 or weighing more than 25kg. Option C (Insulin resistance) is incorrect as it is a mechanism for hyperglycaemia, typically associated with Type 2 Diabetes, and is irrelevant to the failure of glucagon in an acute hypoglycaemic state. Option E (Cerebral oedema) is incorrect because while it is a severe complication of hypoglycaemia, it is a consequence of the neurological insult, not the cause of glucagon's ineffectiveness. 16 / 60 Category: Diabetes Mellitus A 5-year-old boy is admitted to the paediatric ward with a known diagnosis of Addison's disease, usually maintained on oral hydrocortisone replacement therapy at home. His parents report a two-day history of reduced oral intake, diarrhoea, and repeated vomiting. On examination, he is lethargic and notably pale with cool peripheries. His capillary refill time is 4 seconds, blood pressure is 80/40 mmHg, and a point-of-care blood glucose is 2.1 mmol/L. What is the most important immediate management? A) IV 10% Dextrose bolus (2 ml/kg) only B) IV 0.9% Saline bolus (20 ml/kg) and IV Hydrocortisone (stress dose) C) IM Glucagon 1 mg D) IV 10% Dextrose bolus and IV Ceftriaxone E) IV Adrenaline infusion CORRECT ANSWER: This child presents with a classic Addisonian crisis, a life-threatening emergency characterised by hypotension and hypoglycaemia, precipitated by a gastroenteritis illness. National guidelines state the immediate priorities are to correct hypovolemic shock and replace glucocorticoids. The hypotension is driven by mineralocorticoid deficiency causing profound salt and water loss. Therefore, a rapid 0.9% saline bolus is critical to restore circulatory volume. Simultaneously, an intravenous stress dose of hydrocortisone is essential to correct the absolute glucocorticoid deficiency, which is the underlying cause of the shock and the impaired glucose metabolism. Treating these two elements together is the most important immediate step to prevent cardiovascular collapse. The hypoglycaemia, while significant, will typically start to correct with the administration of steroids and restoration of perfusion with fluids. WRONG ANSWER ANALYSIS: Option A (IV 10% Dextrose bolus only) is incorrect because it fails to address the life-threatening hypovolemic shock, which is the primary immediate threat. Option C (IM Glucagon) is less appropriate as it is slower and less reliable than IV dextrose for treating hypoglycaemia, and it does not treat the shock or steroid deficiency. Option D (IV 10% Dextrose bolus and IV Ceftriaxone) is incorrect because while treating a potential precipitating infection is important, it is not the priority over immediate haemodynamic stabilisation and steroid replacement. Option E (IV Adrenaline infusion) is incorrect as this is a treatment for anaphylactic or distributive shock, not the hypovolemic shock seen in an Addisonian crisis. 17 / 60 Category: Diabetes Mellitus A 9-month-old boy is brought to the Paediatric A&E department. His mother reports a 24-hour history of non-bloody, non-bilious vomiting and diarrhoea, and he has had no oral intake for the last 12 hours, appearing increasingly lethargic. On examination, he is drowsy but rousable, with dry mucous membranes and a capillary refill time of 3 seconds. His heart rate is 140 bpm, and respiratory rate is 30 breaths/min. A point-of-care blood glucose is 1.9 mmol/L. A subsequent critical blood sample confirms a plasma glucose of 1.9 mmol/L, with a blood ketone level of 4.2 mmol/L, an insulin level of less than 1 mU/L, and a serum cortisol of 550 nmol/L. What is the most appropriate immediate management? A) IV Dextrose bolus followed by a maintenance infusion B) IV Dextrose bolus and IV Hydrocortisone C) IV Dextrose bolus and IM Glucagon D) IV Dextrose bolus and start Diazoxide E) Discharge with high-carbohydrate advice CORRECT ANSWER: The clinical presentation is classical for ketotic hypoglycaemia, also known as accelerated starvation. This is a common physiological response in young children, particularly during intercurrent illness with reduced oral intake. The critical sample confirms this: the presence of significant ketosis (4.2 mmol/L) with appropriately suppressed insulin (<1) and a robust cortisol stress response (550 nmol/L) excludes sinister underlying pathologies like hyperinsulinism or adrenal insufficiency. The immediate management priority, as per national guidelines, is the urgent correction of hypoglycaemia to prevent neuroglycopenic injury. This is achieved with an intravenous bolus of 2ml/kg of 10% dextrose, followed by a maintenance infusion to provide a stable glucose supply until the child can tolerate oral intake again. WRONG ANSWER ANALYSIS: Option B (IV Dextrose bolus and IV Hydrocortisone) is incorrect because the cortisol level is appropriately elevated, indicating a normal adrenal stress response. Option C (IV Dextrose bolus and IM Glucagon) is less appropriate as glucagon's efficacy depends on adequate hepatic glycogen stores, which are likely depleted after 12 hours of fasting. Option D (IV Dextrose bolus and start Diazoxide) is incorrect because diazoxide is a treatment for hyperinsulinism, a condition ruled out by the suppressed insulin level in the critical sample. Option E (Discharge with high-carbohydrate advice) is unsafe as the child is acutely unwell, unable to take oral fluids, and requires immediate intravenous treatment and inpatient stabilisation. 18 / 60 Category: Diabetes Mellitus A 10-year-old girl presents to the Paediatric Emergency Department after a witnessed generalised tonic-clonic seizure at home. She has Type 1 diabetes mellitus, managed with an insulin pump for three years, with previously stable control. On arrival, she is post-ictal but responsive, with a capillary blood glucose of 1.6 mmol/L, and responds promptly to intravenous dextrose. Her parents report this is the third similar episode in the last week, all occurring overnight or early morning. They had already reduced her basal insulin rates by 10% after the second episode, with no effect. The girl denies any warning symptoms like sweating, tremor, or shakiness before the seizure. Her growth is appropriate, and she has no gastrointestinal symptoms. What is the most likely underlying cause for her presentation? A) Insulin stacking (bolus) B) Honeymoon period C) Recurrent nocturnal hypoglycaemia D) Coeliac disease E) Gastroparesis CORRECT ANSWER: This patient is experiencing hypoglycaemia unawareness, also known as impaired awareness of hypoglycaemia (IAH). This phenomenon occurs when repeated episodes of low blood glucose, particularly unrecognised nocturnal events, blunt the usual counter-regulatory adrenergic response. Consequently, the child no longer experiences the typical warning symptoms like shaking, sweating, or palpitations. The first manifestation of the low blood glucose becomes a severe neuroglycopenic event, such as a seizure or coma. The history of three similar episodes in a week, despite reducing basal insulin rates, strongly suggests a persistent underlying issue like repeated night-time lows, which has desensitised her response to hypoglycaemia. Management involves meticulous review of pump data, considering continuous glucose monitoring (CGM) to identify and prevent these nocturnal events, and further education on adjusting insulin for variables like exercise. WRONG ANSWER ANALYSIS: Option A (Insulin stacking) is less likely as the problem has persisted for a week despite basal rate reduction, suggesting a pattern beyond simple bolus timing errors. Option B ("Honeymoon" period) is incorrect because this phase of residual beta-cell function would typically lead to lower insulin requirements and increased stability, not recurrent severe hypoglycaemia. Option D (Coeliac disease) is incorrect because while associated with Type 1 Diabetes and able to cause glucose variability, it is less likely to present with this specific pattern of recurrent severe hypoglycaemia without other symptoms. Option E (Gastroparesis) is less probable as it typically causes a mismatch between meals and insulin action, leading to post-prandial hypoglycaemia, rather than the pattern described. 19 / 60 Category: Diabetes Mellitus A 3-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her parents. She experienced a sudden generalised tonic-clonic seizure at home, lasting approximately two minutes, and has been drowsy since. There is no history of fever, recent illness, or head trauma. On examination, she is post-ictal but arousable. Her capillary blood glucose is 1.8 mmol/L, requiring a high glucose infusion rate to maintain normoglycaemia. Initial critical bloods reveal an insulin level of 75 mU/L and a C-peptide level of 1.2 nmol/L. She has no rash, hepatosplenomegaly, or signs of dehydration. What is the most likely diagnosis and the most appropriate adjunctive therapy? A) Exogenous insulin; IV Glucagon infusion B) Sulfonylurea ingestion; IV Octreotide C) CHI; IM Glucagon D) Sepsis; IV Ceftriaxone E) Addison's; IV Hydrocortisone CORRECT ANSWER: The critical sample demonstrates hyperinsulinaemic hypoglycaemia. The elevated C-peptide confirms the insulin is endogenous, ruling out exogenous insulin administration. In a toddler, the most probable cause of endogenous hyperinsulinism is accidental sulfonylurea ingestion. Sulfonylureas stimulate pancreatic beta-cells to release insulin, a mechanism that is refractory to standard glucose correction alone and often results in rebound hypoglycaemia. Therefore, after initial glucose correction, the priority is to inhibit further insulin secretion. Intravenous octreotide, a somatostatin analogue, is the specific antidote as it effectively blocks pancreatic insulin release. This directly counteracts the pathologically sustained insulin secretion caused by the sulfonylurea, stabilising blood glucose and preventing further neurological injury from recurrent hypoglycaemia. WRONG ANSWER ANALYSIS: Option A (Exogenous insulin; IV Glucagon infusion) is incorrect because the high C-peptide level indicates the body is producing its own insulin. Option C (CHI; IM Glucagon) is less likely as congenital hyperinsulinism (CHI) typically presents in the neonatal period, not at three years of age. Option D (Sepsis; IV Ceftriaxone) is incorrect as sepsis would typically cause hypoinsulinaemic hypoglycaemia due to increased glucose utilisation and impaired gluconeogenesis. Option E (Addison's; IV Hydrocortisone) is incorrect because Addison's disease would present with low insulin and low C-peptide alongside electrolyte disturbances like hyponatraemia and hyperkalaemia. 20 / 60 Category: Diabetes Mellitus A 3-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department by his parents. He has been increasingly lethargic over the last hour, following a missed overnight feed, and has a known diagnosis of Type 1 Glycogen Storage Disease. On examination, he is drowsy but rousable to voice, with a GCS of 10/15. His capillary blood glucose is 1.5 mmol/L. Peripheral intravenous access has been attempted twice unsuccessfully. What is the most appropriate immediate step in his management? A) Buccal glucose gel / oral glucose B) IM Glucagon 0.5 mg C) IO 10% Dextrose 2 ml/kg D) Wait for senior help E) Give IM Adrenaline CORRECT ANSWER: This child presents with a hypoglycaemic emergency, evidenced by a low blood glucose (BG) and reduced Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS). In Glycogen Storage Disease (GSD) Type 1, the enzyme glucose-6-phosphatase is deficient. This impairs both glycogenolysis (breakdown of glycogen) and gluconeogenesis (synthesis of new glucose). Therefore, the child cannot produce glucose endogenously. The immediate priority is to provide an exogenous source of glucose. As IV access is unavailable, buccal glucose gel is the most appropriate next step according to Resuscitation Council UK and NICE guidelines. It is rapidly absorbed through the buccal mucosa, is non-invasive, and avoids the aspiration risk associated with oral glucose in a child with a reduced level of consciousness. WRONG ANSWER ANALYSIS: Option B (IM Glucagon 0.5 mg) is incorrect because glucagon acts by stimulating glycogenolysis, a metabolic pathway that is defective in GSD Type 1, rendering it ineffective. Option C (IO 10% Dextrose 2 ml/kg) is incorrect because while it is a valid treatment, establishing intraosseous access is more invasive and time-consuming than administering buccal glucose, which should be the immediate first step. Option D (Wait for senior help) is incorrect as hypoglycaemia with a reduced GCS is a time-critical paediatric emergency that requires immediate action to prevent irreversible neurological injury. Option E (Give IM Adrenaline) is incorrect because adrenaline also raises glucose via glycogenolysis, which is ineffective in this condition, and carries significant cardiovascular side effects. 21 / 60 Category: Diabetes Mellitus A 2-year-old boy is brought to the Paediatric Emergency Department. His parents report he became increasingly drowsy over the past hour, now unresponsive, with no history of fever or vomiting. His grandfather, who has type 1 diabetes, is currently visiting their home. On examination, he is pale and clammy with a Glasgow Coma Scale of 8. His heart rate is 110 bpm, respiratory rate 24/min. A point-of-care capillary blood glucose is 1.2 mmol/L. A critical blood sample later shows a serum insulin level of 80 mU/L and a C-peptide level of less than 0.1 nmol/L. What is the most likely diagnosis? A) Exogenous insulin administration (accidental) B) Sulfonylurea ingestion (e.g., Gliclazide) C) Congenital Hyperinsulinism D) An insulinoma E) Sepsis CORRECT ANSWER: The crucial investigation in a non-diabetic child with profound hypoglycaemia is the 'critical sample', taken at the time of the low blood glucose. The key to this diagnosis is the relationship between insulin and C-peptide. The body co-secretes pro-insulin, which is cleaved into insulin and C-peptide in a 1:1 molar ratio. Therefore, any cause of endogenous hyper-insulinaemia will result in high levels of both. In this case, the serum insulin is very high (80 mU/L) while the C-peptide is suppressed (<0.1 nmol/L). This discordance proves the insulin is from an external, or exogenous, source. Given the history of a diabetic relative visiting, accidental administration of injectable insulin is the most likely diagnosis. This is a medical and safeguarding emergency. WRONG ANSWER ANALYSIS: Option B (Sulfonylurea ingestion) is incorrect because sulfonylureas stimulate the pancreatic beta-cells to secrete more insulin, which would result in high levels of both insulin and C-peptide. Option C (Congenital Hyperinsulinism) is incorrect as this is a cause of endogenous insulin secretion, which would also lead to elevated insulin and C-peptide levels. Option D (An insulinoma) is incorrect because this rare insulin-secreting tumour would cause a concordant rise in both insulin and C-peptide. Option E (Sepsis) is incorrect as hypoglycaemia in sepsis is typically associated with low or suppressed insulin levels, not profound hyper-insulinaemia. 22 / 60 Category: Diabetes Mellitus A 4-week-old male infant is brought to the Paediatric Emergency Department. His parents report a 24-hour history of poor feeding, reduced wet nappies, and increasing lethargy. He has also been noted to be jaundiced since birth. On examination, he appears shocked with a weak cry, cool peripheries, and a prolonged capillary refill time of 4 seconds. Dysmorphic features, including a cleft palate and a micropenis, are noted. A critical blood sample taken during a hypoglycaemic episode confirms a low plasma glucose, with inappropriately low serum cortisol and growth hormone levels. What is the most appropriate immediate management? A) IV Dextrose and Growth Hormone B) IV Dextrose and IV Adrenaline C) IV Dextrose and IV Octreotide D) IV Dextrose and IV Diazoxide E) IV Dextrose and IV Hydrocortisone CORRECT ANSWER: The clinical presentation of hypoglycaemia, prolonged jaundice, shock, and midline defects (cleft palate, micropenis) is a classical picture of congenital panhypopituitarism. The critical sample confirms deficiencies in at least ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone), leading to low cortisol, and growth hormone (GH). This is an endocrine emergency. The immediate life-threatening issue is adrenal crisis, causing cardiovascular collapse (shock) and profound hypoglycaemia. As per Royal College of Paediatrics and Child Health (RCPCH) guidance, the priority is immediate resuscitation. This involves rapid correction of hypoglycaemia with intravenous dextrose and treating the adrenal crisis with stress-dose intravenous hydrocortisone. This steroid replacement is critical to reverse the shock state. WRONG ANSWER ANALYSIS: Option A (IV Dextrose and Growth Hormone) is incorrect because while growth hormone replacement is required long-term, it is not the priority in an acute life-threatening collapse and will not correct the adrenal crisis. Option B (IV Dextrose and IV Adrenaline) is incorrect because adrenaline is used for anaphylactic shock, not the shock associated with an adrenal crisis. Option C (IV Dextrose and IV Octreotide) is incorrect as octreotide is a treatment for hyperinsulinaemic hypoglycaemia, not the hormone-deficient hypoglycaemia seen here. Option D (IV Dextrose and IV Diazoxide) is incorrect because diazoxide is also used to suppress insulin secretion in hyperinsulinism and is contraindicated in this context. 23 / 60 Category: Diabetes Mellitus A 1-year-old boy is brought to the Paediatric Assessment Unit after his parents noted increasing lethargy and irritability, particularly if he misses a meal. This morning, he was difficult to rouse. On examination, he is alert but pale; his weight is on the 98th centile, and he has marked hepatomegaly, palpable 5cm below the costal margin. A capillary blood glucose reading was 1.5 mmol/L. A critical blood sample taken during this hypoglycaemic episode demonstrated a significant lactic acidosis and ketosis. What is the most likely diagnosis? A) Glycogen Storage Disease (GSD) Type 1a B) Congenital Hyperinsulinism C) Beckwith-Wiedemann Syndrome D) Sepsis E) Galactosaemia CORRECT ANSWER: This infant presents with the classic triad of fasting hypoglycaemia, lactic acidosis, and massive hepatomegaly. The underlying defect is a deficiency of glucose-6-phosphatase, a crucial enzyme for both glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis. Its absence prevents the liver from releasing free glucose into the bloodstream, leading to profound hypoglycaemia upon fasting. Glucose-6-phosphate is shunted into alternative pathways, causing excessive lactate production. The continuous intrahepatic glycogen synthesis and storage, without effective breakdown, results in significant hepatomegaly. The presence of high ketones reflects the body's necessary switch to fatty acid oxidation for energy in a glucose-deficient state. This constellation of findings is pathognomonic for GSD Type 1a. Management, guided by national metabolic guidelines, focuses on avoiding fasting and providing a continuous source of glucose. WRONG ANSWER ANALYSIS: Option B (Congenital Hyperinsulinism) is incorrect because the presence of high ketones is inconsistent with hyperinsulinaemia, as insulin actively suppresses ketogenesis. Option C (Beckwith-Wiedemann Syndrome) is less likely as its associated hypoglycaemia is typically non-ketotic due to hyperinsulinism and usually improves beyond the neonatal period. Option D (Sepsis) would not explain the chronic massive hepatomegaly and this specific metabolic profile in an otherwise well-appearing child of this size. Option E (Galactosaemia) is incorrect as it typically presents in early infancy after lactose exposure with acute liver failure, jaundice, and cataracts, not this late-onset metabolic picture. 24 / 60 Category: Diabetes Mellitus A 2-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department by his parents. He presented with a generalised tonic-clonic seizure lasting three minutes. His parents report a history of poor feeding and lethargy over the past 24 hours, noting his breath often has a sweet, fruity odour, especially when tired or with a reduced appetite. On examination, he is post-ictal but responsive. His capillary blood glucose on arrival was 2.1 mmol/L. A critical blood sample taken during this hypoglycaemic episode showed a blood ketone level of 4.8 mmol/L, a serum insulin level of less than 1 mU/L, and cortisol and growth hormone levels within the normal reference range. What is the most likely diagnosis? A) Fatty Acid Oxidation Defect B) Congenital Hyperinsulinism C) Addison's Disease D) Ketotic Hypoglycaemia E) Sulfonylurea ingestion CORRECT ANSWER: The diagnosis is Ketotic Hypoglycaemia, the most common cause of hypoglycaemia in children aged 1-5 years. This is a diagnosis of exclusion. The presentation is classic for a toddler with a history of fasting or intercurrent illness. The key diagnostic features are present in the critical sample taken during the hypoglycaemic episode (BG 2.1). The presence of significant ketosis (4.8 mmol/L), which accounts for the "fruity" breath, is crucial. Most importantly, the insulin level is appropriately suppressed (<1), indicating a physiological response to low blood glucose, rather than a primary pathology of insulin secretion. Normal cortisol and growth hormone levels exclude primary adrenal or pituitary insufficiency. This pattern confirms the body is appropriately switching to ketone production for fuel when glucose is unavailable. WRONG ANSWER ANALYSIS: Option A (Fatty Acid Oxidation Defect) is incorrect because these disorders typically cause non-ketotic or hypo-ketotic hypoglycaemia, as ketone body production is impaired. Option B (Congenital Hyperinsulinism) is incorrect because insulin levels are appropriately low; in hyperinsulinism, insulin would be inappropriately detectable or high during hypoglycaemia. Option C (Addison's Disease) is incorrect because the cortisol level is normal, ruling out primary adrenal insufficiency as the cause. Option E (Sulfonylurea ingestion) is incorrect as this would stimulate endogenous insulin secretion, resulting in a high insulin level during the hypoglycaemic episode. 25 / 60 Category: Diabetes Mellitus A 4-week-old male infant is reviewed on the paediatric ward. He was recently diagnosed with congenital hyperinsulinism (CHI) and commenced on oral diazoxide 48 hours ago. His parents report he has been more unsettled and feeding less well today. On examination, the registrar notes new onset of bilateral pitting peripheral oedema to the ankles and increased work of breathing, with a respiratory rate of 65 breaths/min and mild subcostal recession. His oxygen saturations are 96% on air, and heart rate is 155 bpm. Which of the following is the most appropriate medication to add to this infant's treatment regimen? A) Oral Furosemide B) Oral Chlorothiazide C) Oral Spironolactone D) Oral Captopril E) Oral Sildenafil CORRECT ANSWER: Diazoxide is a first-line therapy for many forms of congenital hyperinsulinism (CHI), but a major side effect is fluid retention. This occurs due to its effect on renal tubular sodium and water handling, which can lead to peripheral oedema, pulmonary hypertension, and cardiac failure. National consensus and standard paediatric endocrine practice recommend the co-administration of a thiazide diuretic, like chlorothiazide, to counteract this specific complication. Chlorothiazide is considered the first-line diuretic in this context, often started simultaneously with diazoxide to prevent fluid overload. It also has a mild synergistic hyperglycaemic effect. The development of respiratory distress alongside oedema indicates significant fluid overload, making the immediate addition of chlorothiazide the most critical next step in management. WRONG ANSWER ANALYSIS: Option A (Oral Furosemide) is incorrect because loop diuretics are considered second-line to thiazides for diazoxide-induced fluid retention and can cause significant electrolyte disturbance. Option B (Oral Hydrochlorothiazide) is incorrect as it is not the preferred thiazide diuretic in this scenario. Option C (Oral Spironolactone) is incorrect as it is a potassium-sparing diuretic that is less effective for this specific mechanism of fluid retention and is not the recommended first-line agent. Option D (Oral Captopril) is incorrect because, as an ACE inhibitor, it is used for hypertension or heart failure, not for managing diuretic-resistant fluid overload caused by diazoxide. Option E (Oral Sildenafil) is incorrect as it is a pulmonary vasodilator used to treat pulmonary hypertension itself, but it does not address the underlying cause, which is fluid retention. 26 / 60 Category: Diabetes Mellitus A 3-month-old male infant is reviewed on the paediatric ward. He was admitted following recurrent episodes of lethargy and poor feeding, with investigations for persistent hypoglycaemia confirming a diagnosis of congenital hyperinsulinism. His acute episodes of low blood glucose have been stabilised with intravenous dextrose. On examination, he is alert and normoglycaemic, with no dysmorphic features or hepatosplenomegaly. His blood glucose levels are now stable above 3.5 mmol/L. A decision is made to start long-term oral medical therapy to prevent further hypoglycaemic brain injury. What is the most appropriate first-line oral medication to commence for this condition? A) Oral Diazoxide B) Oral Propranolol C) Oral Octreotide D) Oral Hydrocortisone E) Oral Cornstarch CORRECT ANSWER: Oral Diazoxide is the licensed, first-line medical therapy for long-term management of Congenital Hyperinsulinism (CHI), initiated after acute hypoglycaemia is stabilised. Its primary mechanism is to activate the ATP-sensitive potassium (K-ATP) channels on the pancreatic beta-cell membrane. This action hyperpolarises the cell, inhibiting calcium influx and thereby preventing insulin release, directly targeting the underlying pathophysiology in many forms of CHI. National highly specialised services and consensus guidelines in the UK endorse its use as the initial oral agent for suspected or confirmed CHI. The primary goal is to prevent hypoglycaemic brain injury by establishing stable normoglycaemia, and Diazoxide is the most established treatment to achieve this orally. WRONG ANSWER ANALYSIS: Option B (Oral Propranolol) is incorrect as it is not a primary licensed therapy but may be used as an adjunct in specific Diazoxide-unresponsive cases. Option C (Oral Octreotide) is incorrect because it is a second-line therapy for Diazoxide-unresponsive patients and is administered via subcutaneous injection, not orally. Option D (Oral Hydrocortisone) is incorrect as it does not treat hyperinsulinism directly but raises blood glucose via glucocorticoid effects, and is not a standard therapy for CHI. Option E (Oral Cornstarch) is incorrect as it is a dietary manipulation used to prevent fasting hypoglycaemia in older children with certain metabolic disorders, not a primary medical treatment for CHI in an infant. 27 / 60 Category: Diabetes Mellitus A 6-week-old boy is reviewed on the neonatal unit for persistent hypoglycaemia. He has required ongoing management since birth, presenting with jitteriness and poor feeding episodes. He currently requires a glucose infusion rate of 12 mg/kg/min to maintain euglycaemia. On examination, he is alert, well-perfused, and afebrile, with no hepatomegaly or dysmorphic features. A critical blood sample taken during an episode of hypoglycaemia shows a blood glucose of 2.0 mmol/L, with an insulin level of 15 mU/L, a C-peptide of 0.8 nmol/L, and blood ketones of 0.1 mmol/L. What is the most likely diagnosis? A) Ketotic hypoglycaemia B) Growth hormone deficiency C) Congenital Hyperinsulinism (CHI) D) Sepsis E) Glycogen Storage Disease (GSD) CORRECT ANSWER: The critical sample taken during hypoglycaemia is diagnostic of Congenital Hyperinsulinism (CHI). A high glucose infusion rate (GIR) exceeding 8 mg/kg/min is required to counteract the powerful glucose-lowering effects of excessive and unregulated insulin secretion. In a normal physiological response to hypoglycaemia, insulin and C-peptide secretion would be completely suppressed (becoming undetectable) to allow for counter-regulatory hormone action. The presence of detectable insulin and C-peptide in this context is therefore pathological. Furthermore, insulin inhibits glycogenolysis, gluconeogenesis, and ketogenesis. The profound suppression of ketones (less than 0.5 mmol/L) during significant hypoglycaemia is a hallmark of hyperinsulinism, as it prevents the brain from utilising alternative ketone bodies for fuel, thereby increasing the risk of irreversible neurological injury. WRONG ANSWER ANALYSIS: Option A (Ketotic hypoglycaemia) is incorrect because this diagnosis requires the presence of significant ketosis during the hypoglycaemic event, whereas this patient's ketones are suppressed. Option B (Growth hormone deficiency) is incorrect as although it can cause hypoglycaemia, the insulin and C-peptide levels would be appropriately suppressed. Option D (Sepsis) is incorrect because while it can cause hypoglycaemia due to increased metabolic demand, this would occur with a normal counter-regulatory response, including suppressed insulin. Option E (Glycogen Storage Disease) is incorrect because GSD typically presents with ketotic hypoglycaemia and hepatomegaly, with suppressed insulin. 28 / 60 Category: Diabetes Mellitus A 4-year-old boy is brought to the Accident & Emergency department. His parents report he had a sudden generalised tonic-clonic seizure lasting approximately three minutes at home, with no prior illness or fever. He was drowsy but responsive on arrival. On examination, he is post-ictal but rousable, with symmetrical movements and reactive pupils. His capillary blood glucose was recorded at 1.9 mmol/L, and an intravenous dextrose bolus was administered. While a maintenance infusion is being prepared, a repeat measurement shows his blood glucose is 2.2 mmol/L. There is no hepatosplenomegaly, jaundice, rash, neck stiffness, or focal neurological deficit, and his vital signs are stable. What is the single most important investigation to undertake immediately? A) Critical sample (glucose, insulin, cortisol, GH, ketones) B) Full blood count and CRP C) Liver function tests and coagulation D) CT Head E) Lumbar puncture CORRECT ANSWER: The "critical sample" is the single most important investigation during unexplained hypoglycaemia. National guidelines emphasise that diagnostic tests should be considered in unexplained, severe, or recurrent hypoglycaemia, and this sample provides the maximum diagnostic information. It is a time-critical investigation that must be taken during the hypoglycaemic episode, before administering glucose, if possible. The results allow clinicians to analyse the hormonal response (insulin, cortisol, growth hormone) to the low glucose level, which is fundamental to differentiating between key diagnoses. For example, inappropriately high insulin levels would suggest hyperinsulinism, whereas low insulin with high ketones would point towards a diagnosis like ketotic hypoglycaemia. Delaying this sample makes diagnosis significantly more challenging, as correcting the glucose level alters the biochemical picture. WRONG ANSWER ANALYSIS: Option B (Full blood count and CRP) is incorrect because while infection can trigger hypoglycaemia, identifying the underlying metabolic or endocrine cause via the critical sample is the immediate priority. Option C (Liver function tests and coagulation) is incorrect as, although relevant for investigating potential glycogen storage disorders, these tests are secondary to the critical sample which assesses the acute hormonal response. Option D (CT Head) is incorrect because neuroimaging is not a first-line investigation for a metabolic disturbance unless there are specific neurological signs suggesting an intracranial pathology. Option E (Lumbar puncture) is incorrect as it is an invasive procedure to investigate central nervous system infection, which is not the primary suspected diagnosis for a hypoglycaemic seizure without other specific signs. 29 / 60 Category: Diabetes Mellitus A 2-year-old boy, weighing 12 kg, is attended by paramedics at home after his parents found him difficult to rouse this morning. He has been unwell with a viral illness for two days, with reduced oral intake. On examination, he is lethargic, pale, and clammy, with a GCS of 9/15. His capillary blood glucose is recorded as 2.0 mmol/L. The paramedics have attempted intravenous access twice without success. What is the most appropriate next step in his management? A) Wait for hospital IV access B) IM Glucagon 1.0 mg C) Buccal glucose gel 5g D) 2 ml/kg 10% Dextrose IO E) IM Glucagon 0.5 mg CORRECT ANSWER: Severe hypoglycaemia with a reduced level of consciousness is a paediatric emergency requiring immediate intervention to prevent neurological injury. In a pre-hospital or emergency setting where intravenous access is not available, intramuscular glucagon is the treatment of choice according to UK guidelines. Glucagon stimulates hepatic glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis, thereby raising blood glucose levels. The correct dose is critical and is determined by weight and age. For a child weighing less than 25kg or younger than 8 years, the standard dose is 0.5 mg. This makes it the most appropriate and time-critical intervention in this scenario. WRONG ANSWER ANALYSIS: Option A (Wait for hospital IV access) is incorrect as delaying treatment for severe, symptomatic hypoglycaemia is dangerous and risks irreversible brain damage. Option B (IM Glucagon 1.0 mg) is incorrect because 1.0 mg is the recommended dose for children over 25kg or over 8 years of age, making it an overdose for this patient. Option C (Buccal glucose gel 5g) is incorrect as it should only be used in conscious and cooperative children with mild hypoglycaemia due to the high risk of aspiration in a lethargic child. Option D (2 ml/kg 10% Dextrose IO) is incorrect because while intraosseous access is an alternative to IV, IM glucagon is typically faster, less invasive, and the preferred immediate step when IV access fails. 30 / 60 Category: Diabetes Mellitus A 3-month-old boy is brought to the Paediatric Emergency Department by his mother. She reports he has been irritable and feeding poorly for 24 hours, and this morning experienced a new-onset seizure lasting five minutes, characterised by right-sided facial twitching and arm jerking. On arrival, he is drowsy but rousable. His heart rate is 130 bpm, respiratory rate 35 breaths/min, and oxygen saturations are 98% on air. A point-of-care capillary blood glucose level is 1.8 mmol/L. Intravenous access has just been secured in his left antecubital fossa. What is the most appropriate immediate pharmacological management? A) 2 ml/kg 10% Dextrose IV bolus B) 1 ml/kg 50% Dextrose IV bolus C) 5 ml/kg 10% Dextrose IV bolus D) IM Glucagon 0.5 mg E) 2 ml/kg 0.9% Saline bolus CORRECT ANSWER: This infant's seizure is a direct consequence of severe hypoglycaemia, constituting a neurological emergency. The immediate priority is to restore cerebral glucose levels to terminate seizure activity and prevent neuronal injury. According to UK paediatric life support and endocrine guidelines, the standard intravenous correction for symptomatic hypoglycaemia is a bolus of 10% Dextrose. The recommended dose is 2-3 ml/kg. Therefore, 2 ml/kg is the most appropriate initial dose to rapidly and safely correct the blood glucose without causing significant fluid shifts or hyperglycaemia. This intervention directly addresses the metabolic cause of the seizure, often leading to its cessation without the need for anticonvulsant medication. WRONG ANSWER ANALYSIS: Option B (1 ml/kg 50% Dextrose) is incorrect because 50% Dextrose is markedly hyperosmolar and can cause thrombophlebitis and severe tissue injury if extravasation occurs, making it unsuitable for peripheral IV administration in an infant. Option C (5 ml/kg 10% Dextrose) is incorrect as this represents an excessive initial fluid and glucose bolus, which risks causing iatrogenic hyperglycaemia, osmotic diuresis, and fluid overload. Option D (IM Glucagon 0.5 mg) is incorrect because intravenous access has already been secured; glucagon is a second-line therapy reserved for situations where IV or intraosseous access is delayed. Option E (2 ml/kg 0.9% Saline) is incorrect because saline is an isotonic crystalloid that contains no glucose and will not treat the underlying life-threatening hypoglycaemia. 31 / 60 Category: Diabetes Mellitus A 7-year-old boy presents to the Paediatric Emergency Department. He has a 24-hour history of polyuria, polydipsia, lethargy, vomiting, and diffuse abdominal pain. On arrival, he is drowsy but rousable. His capillary refill time is 3 seconds, and he has deep, sighing respirations. Initial bloods confirm diabetic ketoacidosis with a venous pH of 7.15 and a plasma sodium of 132 mmol/L. He is commenced on intravenous 0.9% sodium chloride and an insulin infusion. Four hours into treatment, his repeat plasma sodium is 142 mmol/L, and his blood glucose has started to fall. What is the most likely explanation for this biochemical change? A) Renal salt wasting B) Iatrogenic salt poisoning C) Dehydration worsening D) Correction of pseudohyponatraemia E) Cerebral salt wasting CORRECT ANSWER: The initial hyponatraemia is a pseudohyponatraemia, a common finding in Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA). The severe hyperglycaemia creates a high osmotic gradient in the extracellular space, which pulls water out of the intracellular space. This influx of water dilutes the extracellular sodium, leading to a falsely low measured sodium level. As insulin therapy is commenced and the blood glucose level falls, the plasma osmolality decreases. Consequently, water moves back into the cells, and the extracellular sodium concentration rises towards its true physiological level. This observed increase in sodium is an expected and reassuring part of the initial fluid and insulin management as per national guidelines, reflecting appropriate correction of the hyperglycaemia and associated fluid shifts. WRONG ANSWER ANALYSIS: Option A (Renal salt wasting) is incorrect as this would cause a true hyponatraemia that would not correct in this manner simply with insulin and fluid therapy. Option B (Iatrogenic salt poisoning) is incorrect because the rise in sodium is a predictable physiological correction, not a result of excessive sodium administration from 0.9% saline. Option C (Dehydration worsening) is incorrect as the patient is receiving intravenous fluids, and worsening dehydration would not typically explain the correction of a dilutional hyponatraemia. Option E (Cerebral salt wasting) is incorrect as it is a rare cause of true hyponatraemia associated with central nervous system injury and is not the mechanism seen in DKA. 32 / 60 Category: Diabetes Mellitus A 12-year-old boy presents to the Emergency Department. He has a 24-hour history of worsening generalised abdominal pain, recurrent non-bilious vomiting, and increased work of breathing. His parents report a week of significant polydipsia and polyuria, requiring frequent toilet trips. On examination, he is lethargic but rousable, with dry mucous membranes and deep, laboured Kussmaul breathing. A venous blood gas is immediately sent. Which combination of blood results is required to confirm the diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis? A) Hyperglycaemia (>11), Ketonaemia (>3), and Acidosis (pH < 7.3) B) Hyperglycaemia (>11), Ketonuria (+++), and Dehydration C) Acidosis (pH < 7.3), Hyperkalaemia (>5.5), and Glycosuria D) Hyperglycaemia (>20), Ketonaemia (>5), and Bicarb < 10 E) Acidosis (pH < 7.2), Ketonaemia (>3), and GCS < 15 CORRECT ANSWER: The diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) in children is confirmed by a specific biochemical triad, as defined by the British Society for Paediatric Endocrinology and Diabetes (BSPED). This requires hyperglycaemia (blood glucose >11 mmol/L), metabolic acidosis (venous pH <7.3 or serum bicarbonate <18 mmol/L, though BSPED often uses <15mmol/L), and ketonaemia (blood beta-hydroxybutyrate >3 mmol/L). These three criteria reflect the underlying pathophysiology of insulin deficiency: glucose cannot be utilised, leading to hyperglycaemia; the body breaks down fat for energy, producing acidic ketone bodies; and these ketones overwhelm the body's buffering capacity, causing acidosis. Promptly identifying these specific biochemical markers is the critical first step to initiating the correct fluid and insulin management pathway, thereby minimising morbidity and mortality. WRONG ANSWER ANALYSIS: Option B is incorrect because ketonuria is less reliable than blood ketonaemia for diagnosis and monitoring, and dehydration is a clinical feature, not a biochemical criterion. Option C is incorrect as hyperkalaemia, while often present due to acidosis-induced potassium shifts, is not a primary diagnostic criterion for DKA. Option D is incorrect because these values (glucose >20, ketones >5, bicarb <10) are indicative of severe DKA, not the minimum thresholds required for diagnosis. Option E is incorrect as a reduced GCS is a marker of DKA severity and potential cerebral oedema, not a component of the initial biochemical diagnosis. 33 / 60 Category: Diabetes Mellitus A 14-year-old girl is admitted to the paediatric high dependency unit. She is being managed for diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) and 4 hours after commencing treatment with intravenous fluids and insulin, her nurse notes a change in her condition. She now complains of a severe headache, is increasingly irritable, and her GCS has dropped from 15 to 13/15 (E4V4M5). Cerebral oedema is suspected. What is the most appropriate first-line osmotic agent to administer? A) 20% Mannitol B) 3% Hypertonic Saline (e.g., 5 ml/kg) C) 0.9% Saline bolus (20 ml/kg) D) IV Dexamethasone E) IV Furosemide CORRECT ANSWER: Cerebral oedema is a life-threatening complication of diabetic ketoacidosis. The priority is to rapidly reduce intracranial pressure. Both 3% hypertonic saline and mannitol are recognised first-line osmotic agents for this purpose. However, current BSPED and many UK local guidelines recommend 3% hypertonic saline as the preferred initial choice. It acts quickly to draw water out of the brain tissue, has a more sustained effect, and is less likely to cause hypotension or significant fluid shifts compared to mannitol. Its administration is a critical, time-sensitive intervention to prevent neurological injury and death. The recommended dose is typically 3-5 ml/kg administered as an intravenous bolus. WRONG ANSWER ANALYSIS: Option A (20% Mannitol) is a valid alternative osmotic therapy, but it can cause a transient increase in intravascular volume followed by profound diuresis, potentially leading to hypotension and electrolyte disturbance. Option C (0.9% Saline bolus) is incorrect because a large volume of isotonic fluid would not create the necessary osmotic gradient to treat cerebral oedema and could potentially worsen it. Option D (IV Dexamethasone) is incorrect as steroids have no proven benefit in treating cytotoxic cerebral oedema associated with DKA and are not recommended. Option E (IV Furosemide) is incorrect because a loop diuretic would cause systemic dehydration without effectively drawing fluid from the brain, and may exacerbate electrolyte imbalances. 34 / 60 Category: Diabetes Mellitus A 10-year-old boy is being managed on the Paediatric High Dependency Unit for diabetic ketoacidosis. He presented with polyuria, polydipsia, and vomiting, and was commenced on a fixed-rate intravenous insulin infusion (0.1 units/kg/hr) and intravenous fluids six hours ago. On examination, he is alert and cooperative, with a capillary refill time of 2 seconds and a regular pulse of 90 bpm. He is currently receiving 0.9% sodium chloride with 10% dextrose and 40mmol/L of potassium chloride. His latest capillary blood glucose is 5.5 mmol/L and his blood ketones are 2.5 mmol/L. His venous pH is 7.25. What is the most appropriate next step in his management? A) Increase the Dextrose concentration to 20% B) Decrease the insulin infusion to 0.05 units/kg/hr C) Give a 50ml bolus of 10% Dextrose D) Stop the insulin infusion for 30 minutes E) Give oral glucose gel CORRECT ANSWER: The primary therapeutic goal in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is the resolution of ketosis and acidosis, which requires an uninterrupted insulin infusion. This patient's ketosis is ongoing (ketones 2.5 mmol/L). However, their blood glucose is falling towards hypoglycaemia. As per UK national guidelines (BSPED/NICE), if the blood glucose falls below 6 mmol/L while DKA is unresolved, the insulin infusion must be maintained to continue clearing ketones. To prevent hypoglycaemia, the intravenous fluid dextrose concentration should be increased, typically from 10% to 15% or 20%. This provides sufficient glucose substrate to allow the fixed-rate insulin infusion to continue safely until the DKA resolves (ketones <0.6 mmol/L, pH >7.3). WRONG ANSWER ANALYSIS: Option B (Decrease the insulin infusion to 0.05 units/kg/hr) is incorrect because reducing the insulin rate would impair the clearance of ketones, thereby prolonging the resolution of the life-threatening ketoacidosis. Option C (Give a 50ml bolus of 10% Dextrose) is incorrect as a bolus offers only a transient correction of blood glucose and fails to provide the continuous glucose substrate required to balance the ongoing insulin infusion. Option D (Stop the insulin infusion for 30 minutes) is incorrect because ceasing the insulin infusion would allow ketone production to resume and worsen the acidosis, fundamentally undermining DKA treatment. Option E (Give oral glucose gel) is incorrect as the oral route is unreliable in a critically unwell child with DKA who may be nauseated or have a reduced level of consciousness, necessitating intravenous management. 35 / 60 Category: Diabetes Mellitus A 9-year-old boy is admitted to the Paediatric Assessment Unit with newly diagnosed diabetic ketoacidosis, presenting with polyuria, polydipsia, and lethargy. After 12 hours of treatment with a fixed-rate intravenous insulin infusion and intravenous fluids, he is clinically alert, interactive, and expresses that he is hungry. On examination, he is well-perfused with a capillary refill time of <2 seconds. His biochemical markers have significantly improved, with a pH of 7.32, bicarbonate of 20 mmol/L, and blood ketones of 0.7 mmol/L. His usual morning dose of long-acting subcutaneous insulin has just been administered. What is the minimum recommended time to continue the intravenous insulin infusion after giving the subcutaneous injection? A) 60 minutes after the SC insulin is given B) Immediately after the SC insulin is given C) 4 hours after the SC insulin is given D) When his next meal is finished E) 30 minutes after the SC insulin is given CORRECT ANSWER: The transition from intravenous (IV) to subcutaneous (SC) insulin is a critical step guided by pharmacokinetic principles to ensure patient safety. As per UK national guidelines (BSPED/NICE), an overlap is mandatory. IV insulin has a half-life of only a few minutes, meaning its effect ceases almost immediately upon stopping the infusion. Conversely, long-acting SC insulin, such as glargine (Lantus), has a delayed onset of action, requiring at least 60 minutes for significant absorption and systemic effect. Stopping the IV infusion before the SC insulin is therapeutically active would create a gap in insulin cover. This period of insulin deficiency allows counter-regulatory hormones to trigger a rebound in ketogenesis and hyperglycaemia, effectively reversing the resolution of DKA. A 60-minute overlap ensures continuous insulin activity, providing a safe and stable transition from IV to SC therapy once the child is biochemically stable and ready to eat. WRONG ANSWER ANALYSIS: Option B (Immediately after the SC insulin is given) is incorrect as it fails to account for the absorption lag of SC insulin, creating a high-risk gap in therapy that allows ketones to re-form. Option C (4 hours after the SC insulin is given) is incorrect because this represents an excessive and unnecessary overlap, significantly increasing the risk of iatrogenic hypoglycaemia. Option D (When his next meal is finished) is incorrect because the timing of the insulin transition must be based on drug pharmacokinetics, not on the variable timing of meals. Option E (30 minutes after the SC insulin is given) is incorrect as this shorter overlap is insufficient to guarantee that the SC insulin has reached therapeutic levels, posing a significant risk of rebound ketosis. 36 / 60 Category: Diabetes Mellitus A 7-year-old girl presents to the Paediatric A&E, brought in by her parents. They report a two-day history of persistent vomiting and increasing lethargy. For the past week, she has experienced increased thirst and urination, accompanied by noticeable weight loss despite a normal appetite. On examination, she is drowsy, has dry mucous membranes, and her breathing is deep and rapid. Her heart rate is 120 bpm, and capillary refill time is 3 seconds. Initial blood glucose is 28.5 mmol/L, and urine dipstick shows 4+ ketones. What is the fundamental biochemical process responsible for her clinical state? A) Excessive glucose intake B) High-dose steroid use C) Relative or absolute insulin deficiency, leading to unsuppressed ketogenesis D) Severe dehydration from vomiting E) Pancreatic exocrine failure CORRECT ANSWER: Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is fundamentally a state of intracellular starvation caused by a relative or absolute insulin deficiency. Without sufficient insulin, glucose cannot be transported into cells for energy. The body perceives this as starvation and initiates counter-regulatory hormone release, including glucagon, cortisol, and catecholamines. This hormonal milieu stimulates gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis, worsening the hyperglycaemia. More critically, it triggers uncontrolled lipolysis, breaking down triglycerides into free fatty acids. These are then oxidised in the liver into ketone bodies (acetoacetate and beta-hydroxybutyrate). The accumulation of these acidic ketones overwhelms the body's buffering capacity, resulting in a severe metabolic acidosis. The hyperglycaemia also causes an osmotic diuresis, leading to profound dehydration and electrolyte imbalances, but the core process is the unsuppressed ketogenesis driven by insulin deficiency. WRONG ANSWER ANALYSIS: Option A (Excessive glucose intake) is incorrect because while it can cause hyperglycaemia, it will not induce ketogenesis in a person with adequate insulin production. Option B (High-dose steroid use) is incorrect as steroids cause hyperglycaemia through insulin resistance, but they do not directly cause the profound ketosis that defines DKA without a concurrent state of insulin deficiency. Option D (Severe dehydration from vomiting) is incorrect because dehydration is a significant consequence and exacerbating factor of DKA, primarily from osmotic diuresis, not the root biochemical cause. Option E (Pancreatic exocrine failure) is incorrect because this affects the production of digestive enzymes and does not directly involve the endocrine function of insulin production from beta-cells. 37 / 60 Category: Diabetes Mellitus A 15-year-old boy is admitted to the Paediatric Intensive Care Unit (PICU). He presented with a 24-hour history of polyuria, polydipsia, vomiting, and increasing lethargy, now in severe diabetic ketoacidosis and circulatory shock, requiring an intravenous adrenaline infusion. On examination, he is tachycardic with poor peripheral perfusion. He is managed with a central venous catheter, through which he is receiving an intravenous insulin infusion and fluid resuscitation. An initial blood gas analysis confirms a pH of 7.0, and his serum potassium level is 2.4 mmol/L. What is the maximum recommended rate for his intravenous potassium replacement? A) 5 mmol/hour B) 10 mmol/hour C) 40 mmol/hour D) 20 mmol/hour (0.3 mmol/kg/hr) E) 50 mmol/hour CORRECT ANSWER: This patient has life-threatening hypokalaemia (2.4 mmol/L) in the context of severe DKA, which requires urgent and aggressive potassium replacement under specialist paediatric intensive care (PICU) supervision. Insulin and correction of acidosis will drive potassium into the intracellular space, worsening the hypokalaemia and risking fatal cardiac arrhythmias. National guidelines recommend that in a critical care setting with a central line and continuous cardiac monitoring, higher rates of potassium infusion are necessary. A rate of 20 mmol/hour (approximately 0.3 mmol/kg/hr for a 60kg adolescent) is a standard maximum rate in many PICU protocols for severe, symptomatic hypokalaemia. This balances the need for rapid correction against the risks of iatrogenic hyperkalaemia. WRONG ANSWER ANALYSIS: Option A (5 mmol/hour) is incorrect because this rate is too slow to correct life-threatening hypokalaemia in a patient of this weight and would be insufficient to counteract the effects of insulin therapy. Option B (10 mmol/hour) is incorrect as it represents a standard maximum rate for potassium replacement on a general paediatric ward, not for a critically unwell patient in PICU with severe hypokalaemia requiring a central line. Option C (40 mmol/hour) is incorrect because while rates up to 0.5 mmol/kg/hr can be considered in extreme circumstances, 40 mmol/hr is significantly higher than the standard starting maximum and carries a much greater risk of causing dangerous hyperkalaemia. Option E (50 mmol/hour) is incorrect as this rate is excessive and falls outside of any recognised paediatric DKA or hypokalaemia management guidelines, posing a significant risk of cardiac arrest. 38 / 60 Category: Diabetes Mellitus A 10-year-old boy, recently diagnosed with Type 1 diabetes mellitus, is admitted to the Paediatric High Dependency Unit. He presents with a 24-hour history of polyuria, polydipsia, vomiting, and increasing lethargy, consistent with diabetic ketoacidosis. On assessment, he is tachycardic and tachypnoeic with Kussmaul breathing; his capillary blood glucose is 28.5 mmol/L, and initial venous blood gas shows pH 7.15. His Glasgow Coma Scale is 13 (E4 V4 M5). Which of the following is the most critical parameter to monitor hourly? A) Neurological observations B) Capillary blood ketones C) Capillary blood glucose D) Venous blood gas E) Fluid balance chart CORRECT ANSWER: Cerebral oedema is the most dangerous complication of Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA) in children, accounting for 60-80% of DKA-related deaths. The patient's Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) of 13 already indicates some neurological compromise, placing him at high risk. National guidelines from bodies like NICE and BSPED mandate frequent neurological observations as the priority to detect early, subtle signs of cerebral oedema. These signs include headache, slowing heart rate, irritability, and changes in GCS, which can precede catastrophic deterioration. Early identification allows for prompt intervention (e.g., hyperosmolar therapy) and is critical to improving outcomes. Therefore, hourly neurological assessment is the single most important monitoring to prevent irreversible harm and mortality. WRONG ANSWER ANALYSIS: Option B (Capillary blood ketones) is incorrect because while monitoring ketone clearance is important, it is typically performed 2-4 hourly, not hourly, once the insulin infusion is stable. Option C (Capillary blood glucose) is incorrect as although it requires hourly checking, preventing neurological injury takes precedence over managing hyperglycaemia. Option D (Venous blood gas) is incorrect because acidosis correction is monitored 2-4 hourly; more frequent VBG sampling is unnecessary unless there is clinical worsening. Option E (Fluid balance chart) is incorrect as fluid balance is crucial and monitored hourly, but neurological deterioration is a more immediate life-threat than fluid imbalance. 39 / 60 Category: Diabetes Mellitus A 13-year-old boy is being managed on the High Dependency Unit for diabetic ketoacidosis. He presented with a 2-day history of polyuria, polydipsia, and increasing lethargy. On examination, he had dry mucous membranes, a heart rate of 110 bpm, and a capillary refill time of 3 seconds. His initial serum potassium on admission was 5.5 mmol/L. He was commenced on an intravenous insulin infusion and 0.9% sodium chloride. A repeat venous blood gas three hours into treatment shows a potassium level of 3.4 mmol/L. He has passed urine. What is the most appropriate immediate change to his fluid prescription? A) Stop the insulin infusion B) Add 40 mmol/L KCl to the IV fluids C) Re-check the sample as it must be an error D) Give an IV bolus of potassium E) No change, this is an expected drop CORRECT ANSWER: Children with DKA have a significant total body potassium deficit, even if initial serum levels are normal or high. Treatment with intravenous insulin drives potassium from the extracellular to the intracellular space, causing a rapid fall in serum concentration. National guidelines state that 40 mmol/L of potassium chloride should be added to intravenous fluids once the serum potassium falls below 5.5 mmol/L and the patient is passing urine. With a potassium of 3.4 mmol/L, the patient is approaching hypokalaemia, which carries a significant risk of cardiac arrhythmias. Therefore, the immediate priority is to add potassium to the maintenance fluids to prevent this life-threatening complication while continuing to treat the underlying DKA. This proactive replacement is a cornerstone of safe DKA management. WRONG ANSWER ANALYSIS: Option A (Stop the insulin infusion) is incorrect as this would reverse the treatment of ketoacidosis, allowing glucose and ketones to rise, and worsening the patient's underlying critical illness. Option B (Re-check the sample as it must be an error) is incorrect because a rapid drop in potassium is a classic and fully expected physiological response to insulin and fluid therapy in DKA. Option D (Give an IV bolus of potassium) is incorrect because potassium boluses are reserved for emergency treatment of severe hypokalaemia with ECG changes and carry a high risk of iatrogenic hyperkalaemia. Option E (No change, this is an expected drop) is incorrect because, while the drop is predictable, failing to act proactively would lead to dangerous and preventable hypokalaemia. 40 / 60 Category: Diabetes Mellitus A 5-year-old girl presents to the paediatric emergency department. Her parents report a 24-hour history of increasing lethargy, polyuria, and polydipsia, now accompanied by abdominal pain and occasional vomiting. On examination, she is drowsy but rousable. Her breathing is noted to be deep and sighing in character, with a respiratory rate of 30 breaths/min. Capillary refill time is 3 seconds, and her mucous membranes are dry. An urgent arterial blood gas analysis shows a pH of 7.05, pCO2 2.0 kPa, and bicarbonate 5 mmol/L. What is the most accurate physiological explanation for this respiratory sign? A) It is a respiratory compensation for metabolic acidosis B) It is a sign of cerebral irritation C) It is a sign of pulmonary oedema D) It is a sign of severe hypokalaemia E) It is a sign of respiratory fatigue CORRECT ANSWER: In diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), the accumulation of ketoacids leads to severe metabolic acidosis, indicated here by a pH of 7.05. The body's primary and most rapid compensatory mechanism is respiratory. Kussmaul breathing is a specific pattern of deep, sighing hyperventilation. This physiological response increases the excretion of carbon dioxide (an acidic gas) from the lungs. By reducing the partial pressure of CO2 in the blood, the body attempts to counteract the metabolic acidosis and raise the arterial pH back towards a normal range. Recognising this as a compensatory mechanism, rather than a primary pathology, is a critical decision-making step in the acute management of DKA, as per national guidelines. The priority is to treat the underlying DKA with insulin and fluids, which will resolve the acidosis and render the respiratory compensation unnecessary. WRONG ANSWER ANALYSIS: Option B (It is a sign of cerebral irritation) is incorrect because while altered consciousness can occur in DKA, Kussmaul breathing is a distinct respiratory sign of acidosis, not a neurological sign of cerebral irritation. Option C (It is a sign of pulmonary oedema) is incorrect as pulmonary oedema typically presents with rapid, shallow breathing and crackles on auscultation, not the deep, laboured pattern of Kussmaul breathing. Option D (It is a sign of severe hypokalaemia) is incorrect because severe hypokalaemia causes muscle weakness, which would lead to shallow, ineffective respirations, the opposite of this breathing pattern. Option E (It is a sign of respiratory fatigue) is incorrect because Kussmaul breathing is a vigorous compensatory effort; respiratory fatigue is the failure of this effort, which would manifest as shallowing respirations and a rising CO2. 41 / 60 Category: Diabetes Mellitus A 12-year-old boy is on the Paediatric High Dependency Unit. He was admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis and has been receiving intravenous fluids and a fixed-rate insulin infusion for 10 hours. He is now alert and tolerating sips. On examination, he is normotensive with good peripheral perfusion and no signs of respiratory distress. His latest venous blood gas shows a pH of 7.28, bicarbonate of 16 mmol/L, and a chloride level of 120 mmol/L. His capillary blood ketones are now 1.5 mmol/L and the calculated anion gap has returned to a normal value of 12. What is the most likely cause of the persistent acidosis? A) Lactic acidosis B) Renal tubular acidosis C) Hyperchloraemic acidosis D) Respiratory acidosis E) Incomplete DKA resolution CORRECT ANSWER: During the initial management of Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA), large volumes of 0.9% sodium chloride are administered for rehydration as per national guidelines. This fluid has a chloride concentration of 154 mmol/L, which is significantly higher than that of plasma. The administration of this chloride-rich fluid leads to a dilutional hyperchloraemia. As the keto-anions are metabolised and excreted, they are replaced by chloride ions to maintain electrical neutrality, resulting in a non-anion gap metabolic acidosis. The key to identifying this iatrogenic and self-limiting condition is the normalising anion gap and improving ketone levels, which indicate the DKA itself is resolving. This is a common and expected finding during DKA treatment. WRONG ANSWER ANALYSIS: Option A (Lactic acidosis) is incorrect as it typically occurs with significant hypoperfusion, which should be improving with fluid resuscitation, not worsening ten hours into treatment. Option B (Renal tubular acidosis) is a chronic condition and an unlikely acute presentation in this context. Option D (Respiratory acidosis) is incorrect because the primary disturbance is metabolic, and a respiratory acidosis would be characterised by a raised pCO2. Option E (Incomplete DKA resolution) is less accurate because the falling ketone levels and closing anion gap show that the primary metabolic process of DKA is indeed resolving. 42 / 60 Category: Diabetes Mellitus A 4-year-old boy is admitted to the Paediatric High Dependency Unit with newly diagnosed diabetic ketoacidosis. He presented with a 24-hour history of polyuria, polydipsia, vomiting, and increasing lethargy. On examination, he weighs 16 kg, has poor peripheral perfusion, and a capillary refill time of 4 seconds. His dehydration is estimated at 8 percent, and he received an initial intravenous fluid bolus of 160 ml of 0.9% sodium chloride. His maintenance fluid requirement is calculated to be 1300 ml per 24 hours. When calculating the total intravenous fluid volume to be administered over the subsequent 48-hour period, how is the initial fluid bolus correctly accounted for? A) It is subtracted from the total 48-hour deficit fluid volume B) It is ignored and does not change the calculation C) It is added to the total 48-hour fluid volume D) It is subtracted from the 48-hour maintenance fluid volume E) It is subtracted from the first 24-hour fluid volume only CORRECT ANSWER: According to UK guidelines, including those from the British Society for Paediatric Endocrinology and Diabetes (BSPED), any intravenous fluid bolus given for initial resuscitation in Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA) is considered part of the correction of the total fluid deficit. The bolus rapidly restores circulating intravascular volume, which is the most critical component of the deficit. Therefore, its volume must be subtracted from the total calculated deficit before the remaining fluid replacement is spread evenly over 48 hours. This prevents over-administration of fluid, which is a key principle in DKA management to minimise the risk of cerebral oedema. The calculation is: Total 48hr fluid = (48hr maintenance) + (Total deficit - bolus volume). WRONG ANSWER ANALYSIS: Option B (It is ignored and does not change the calculation) is incorrect because failing to account for the bolus leads to excessive fluid administration and an increased risk of iatrogenic cerebral oedema. Option C (It is added to the total 48-hour fluid volume) is incorrect as this would grossly overestimate the patient's needs and significantly increase the danger of fluid overload. Option D (It is subtracted from the 48-hour maintenance fluid volume) is incorrect because the bolus replaces lost fluid (deficit), whereas maintenance fluid accounts for ongoing physiological needs. Option E (It is subtracted from the first 24-hour fluid volume only) is incorrect because the remaining deficit is replaced evenly over the entire 48-hour period to ensure a gradual and safe correction. 43 / 60 Category: Diabetes Mellitus A 9-year-old boy is reviewed on the Paediatric High Dependency Unit. He was admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis and is now six hours into treatment, receiving a fixed-rate intravenous insulin infusion. For the last two hours, his intravenous fluids have been 0.9% sodium chloride with 10% dextrose and 40mmol/L potassium chloride. He is alert and responsive, with a capillary refill time of 2 seconds and a regular heart rate of 95 bpm. His most recent capillary blood sample shows a glucose of 5.5mmol/L and ketones of 2.5mmol/L. What is the most appropriate next step in his management? A) Give oral glucose gel B) Decrease the insulin infusion to 0.05 units/kg/hr C) Give a 50ml bolus of 10% Dextrose D) Stop the insulin infusion for 30 minutes E) Increase the Dextrose concentration to 20% CORRECT ANSWER: The primary goal in managing Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA) is the resolution of ketosis and acidosis, which requires a continuous fixed-rate insulin infusion. In this case, the ketones remain high at 2.5 mmol/L, indicating that the DKA is not yet resolved. Therefore, the insulin infusion must be maintained. The blood glucose is approaching the lower end of the target range (typically 5-10 mmol/L). To prevent hypoglycaemia while continuing the essential insulin infusion, the glucose substrate in the intravenous fluids must be increased. National guidelines recommend increasing the dextrose concentration from 10% to 15% or 20% in this situation. This allows for the safe continuation of insulin to suppress ketone production and correct the underlying metabolic acidosis, without causing iatrogenic hypoglycaemia. WRONG ANSWER ANALYSIS: Option A (Give oral glucose gel) is incorrect because a child requiring intravenous DKA management is often not in a suitable clinical state to safely take oral treatment, and it does not provide a continuous, reliable source of glucose. Option B (Decrease the insulin infusion to 0.05 units/kg/hr) is incorrect because reducing the insulin rate would impair the clearance of ketones and prolong the resolution of DKA. Option C (Give a 50ml bolus of 10% Dextrose) is incorrect as it provides only a temporary increase in blood glucose and is not a substitute for increasing the background glucose substrate in the maintenance fluids. Option D (Stop the insulin infusion for 30 minutes) is incorrect and dangerous, as stopping insulin would cause a rapid rebound in ketone production and worsen the acidosis. 44 / 60 Category: Diabetes Mellitus A 14-year-old girl presents to the Paediatric Emergency Department. Her parents report a 24-hour history of polyuria, polydipsia, and increasing lethargy, culminating in recurrent vomiting over the past 6 hours. On examination, she is drowsy but rousable, tachycardic at 120 bpm, and has deep, sighing respirations. Capillary refill time is 3 seconds. Initial investigations confirm diabetic ketoacidosis, with a venous blood gas showing a pH of 7.10, bicarbonate 8 mmol/L, and glucose 32 mmol/L. The attending registrar commences intravenous fluid resuscitation according to national guidelines. What is the most important reason for using 0.9% saline as the initial rehydration fluid in this clinical context? A) To provide more free water B) To correct the sodium deficit faster C) To treat the hyperkalaemia more effectively D) To prevent hyperchloraemic acidosis E) To prevent a rapid fall in serum osmolality CORRECT ANSWER: The primary goal in managing paediatric Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA) is the prevention of iatrogenic cerebral oedema, a life-threatening complication. Patients in DKA are in a state of hyperosmolality due to severe hyperglycaemia. The brain adapts to this by producing idiogenic osmoles to maintain osmotic equilibrium and prevent cellular dehydration. If the systemic serum osmolality is corrected too rapidly with a hypotonic fluid like 0.45% saline, a significant osmotic gradient is created. This gradient drives free water into the brain cells, which cannot shed their idiogenic osmoles as quickly, leading to cerebral swelling. As per national guidelines (BSPED/NICE), using an isotonic fluid such as 0.9% saline ensures a gradual, controlled reduction in serum osmolality, thereby minimising the risk of cerebral oedema. This cautious approach is the cornerstone of safe fluid resuscitation in paediatric DKA. WRONG ANSWER ANALYSIS: Option A (To provide more free water) is incorrect as providing excess free water is precisely what must be avoided to prevent the rapid drop in osmolality that precipitates cerebral oedema. Option B (To correct the sodium deficit faster) is incorrect because while 0.9% saline addresses the sodium deficit, the rate of correction is not the primary therapeutic driver; preventing cerebral oedema is the priority. Option C (To treat the hyperkalaemia more effectively) is incorrect as hyperkalaemia in DKA is primarily managed with insulin, which shifts potassium intracellularly, not by the choice of crystalloid. Option D (To prevent hyperchloraemic acidosis) is incorrect because large volumes of 0.9% saline can contribute to or worsen a hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis. 45 / 60 Category: Diabetes Mellitus An 8-year-old boy is reviewed on the High Dependency Unit, having been admitted with new-onset type 1 diabetes and severe DKA. He presented with polyuria, polydipsia, and lethargy, and is now three hours into his treatment. He is receiving a fixed-rate intravenous insulin infusion and 0.9% sodium chloride with 40mmol/L of potassium chloride. On examination, he is less drowsy, capillary refill time is 2 seconds, and his heart rate is 95 bpm. His latest capillary blood glucose is 15 mmol/L. A recent venous blood gas demonstrates a pH of 7.22 and a potassium of 4.0 mmol/L. What is the most appropriate next step in his fluid management? A) No, wait until the blood glucose is < 14 mmol/L B) Yes, add 10% Dextrose now C) Yes, and stop the 0.9% Saline D) No, change the fluid to 0.45% Saline E) No, add 5% Dextrose instead CORRECT ANSWER: The primary therapeutic goal in Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA) is the correction of acidosis, dehydration, and electrolyte abnormalities, driven by a fixed-rate insulin infusion. The blood glucose level will inevitably fall with insulin and rehydration. According to the 2021 British Society for Paediatric Endocrinology and Diabetes (BSPED) guideline, intravenous fluids containing glucose are introduced only when the blood glucose level has fallen to 14 mmol/L. This patient's blood glucose is 15 mmol/L. Introducing 10% dextrose at this point would counteract the effect of the insulin infusion, worsen hyperglycaemia, and potentially increase the risk of cerebral oedema due to fluid shifts. The correct action is to continue the current management and anticipate adding 10% dextrose to the 0.9% saline with potassium chloride once the glucose threshold of 14 mmol/L is reached, allowing the insulin infusion to continue safely to resolve the ketosis. WRONG ANSWER ANALYSIS: Option B (Yes, add 10% Dextrose now.) is incorrect as the blood glucose of 15 mmol/L is above the BSPED threshold of 14 mmol/L, and adding dextrose would cause iatrogenic hyperglycaemia. Option C (Yes, and stop the 0.9% Saline.) is incorrect because the patient requires ongoing rehydration and electrolyte replacement with 0.9% saline; dextrose is added to this fluid, it does not replace it. Option D (No, change the fluid to 0.45% Saline.) is incorrect as 0.9% saline is the standard isotonic fluid used to prevent rapid shifts in serum osmolality and reduce the risk of cerebral oedema. Option E (No, add 5% Dextrose instead.) is incorrect because the current national guideline specifically recommends using 10% dextrose to provide sufficient glucose to prevent hypoglycaemia while the insulin infusion continues. 46 / 60 Category: Diabetes Mellitus A 10-year-old girl is admitted to the Paediatric High Dependency Unit. She presents with a 24-hour history of polyuria, polydipsia, vomiting, and increasing lethargy, consistent with severe diabetic ketoacidosis. On examination, she is drowsy but rousable, tachycardic (HR 130 bpm), hypotensive (BP 85/50 mmHg), and has deep Kussmaul breathing. Capillary refill time is 4 seconds. Initial arterial blood gas analysis reveals a pH of 6.95, pCO2 2.5 kPa, and a bicarbonate of 4 mmol/L. Her initial serum potassium is 4.2 mmol/L. During initial fluid resuscitation and insulin infusion, a colleague suggests administering intravenous sodium bicarbonate to rapidly correct the profound acidosis. What is the most significant risk associated with this specific intervention? A) It paradoxically worsens cerebral acidosis B) It causes severe hypokalaemia C) It causes rapid fluid shifts D) It inactivates the IV insulin E) It causes severe hypertension CORRECT ANSWER: The administration of intravenous sodium bicarbonate in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is contraindicated as it can paradoxically worsen cerebral acidosis. While bicarbonate raises systemic pH, it dissociates into carbon dioxide and water. Carbon dioxide rapidly crosses the blood-brain barrier, unlike bicarbonate ions. This leads to a swift decrease in the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), exacerbating intracellular acidosis within the central nervous system. This process significantly increases the risk of cerebral oedema, the most feared complication of paediatric DKA, which carries high morbidity and mortality. National guidelines in the UK (BSPED/NICE) strongly advise against its routine use. The focus of management should be on careful fluid resuscitation and insulin therapy to halt ketogenesis and gradually correct the acidosis and dehydration. WRONG ANSWER ANALYSIS: Option B (It causes severe hypokalaemia) is incorrect because although bicarbonate administration can worsen hypokalaemia by shifting potassium into cells, the primary life-threatening risk is cerebral oedema. Option C (It causes rapid fluid shifts) is less appropriate because while it is a hypertonic solution, the most critical danger is not the generalised fluid shift but the specific paradoxical acidosis it creates in the brain. Option D (It inactivates the IV insulin) is incorrect as there is no significant chemical interaction that inactivates insulin when bicarbonate is administered. Option E (It causes severe hypertension) is incorrect because while the sodium load can affect fluid balance, severe hypertension is not the principal acute complication of its use in this context. 47 / 60 Category: Diabetes Mellitus A 15-year-old boy is on the Paediatric High Dependency Unit, 12 hours after commencing treatment for diabetic ketoacidosis. Despite initial improvement, he remains lethargic with persistent tachypnoea. He weighs 50 kg and is receiving a fixed-rate intravenous insulin infusion of 0.1 units/kg/hr alongside intravenous fluids containing 10% dextrose. A repeat blood gas analysis shows a pH of 7.20 and blood ketones of 4.0 mmol/L. The infusion pump and calculations have been thoroughly checked and are functioning correctly. What is the most appropriate next step in his management? A) Give an IV bolus of Sodium Bicarbonate B) Give an IV bolus of 5 units of insulin C) Increase insulin infusion to 0.15 units/kg/hr (7.5 units/hr) D) Check his serum magnesium level E) Switch to 20% Dextrose CORRECT ANSWER: This patient demonstrates insulin resistance, evidenced by the failure of ketones to clear and persistent acidosis despite receiving a standard insulin infusion for 12 hours. According to national guidelines, the priority in this situation is to overcome this resistance by increasing the rate of the insulin infusion. The pump and calculations have been checked, ruling out mechanical error. The next therapeutic step is to increase the insulin dose, typically in increments, to promote ketone metabolism and resolve the acidosis. The provision of 10% dextrose is appropriate to prevent hypoglycaemia as the insulin rate is increased, and this may need to be further increased to 20% if blood glucose falls rapidly with the higher insulin dose. WRONG ANSWER ANALYSIS: Option A (Give an IV bolus of Sodium Bicarbonate) is incorrect as bicarbonate is not recommended and can cause paradoxical cerebral acidosis and rapid shifts in potassium, increasing the risk of complications. Option B (Give an IV bolus of 5 units of insulin) is incorrect because insulin boluses are contraindicated in the management of DKA in children as they increase the risk of rapid metabolic changes and cerebral oedema. Option D (Check his serum magnesium level) is incorrect because while electrolyte monitoring is crucial, it is not the priority intervention to manage unresolved ketosis, which is the primary problem. Option E (Switch to 20% Dextrose) is incorrect as this would be a reaction to falling blood glucose, not a primary intervention to clear ketones; the fundamental issue is insufficient insulin action. 48 / 60 Category: Diabetes Mellitus A 12-year-old girl is reviewed on the paediatric ward. She was admitted 18 hours ago with newly diagnosed type 1 diabetes presenting as diabetic ketoacidosis and has been receiving intravenous fluids and insulin infusion. She is now alert, engaging with staff, and asking for breakfast. On examination, she is clinically well, with a capillary refill time of <2 seconds and no signs of cerebral oedema. Her most recent venous blood gas shows a pH of 7.35, bicarbonate 19 mmol/L, and blood ketones of 0.8 mmol/L. What is the most appropriate next step in her management? A) Stop IV insulin but continue IV fluids for 12 hours B) Stop all IV fluids and insulin, and discharge C) Start subcutaneous insulin, and stop IVI 1 hour later D) Start a sliding-scale insulin infusion E) Continue IVI until ketones are 0.0 mmol/L CORRECT ANSWER: According to national guidelines, diabetic ketoacidosis is considered resolved when the blood pH is above 7.3, bicarbonate is over 15 mmol/L, and blood ketones are below 1.0 mmol/L. This patient meets all biochemical criteria for resolution. As she is also clinically well and ready to eat and drink, the priority is to transition safely from intravenous (IV) insulin to a subcutaneous (SC) basal-bolus regimen. The first dose of SC long-acting insulin must be administered while the IV insulin infusion continues for a period of overlap, typically 60 minutes. This is a critical safety step because IV insulin has a very short half-life; stopping it abruptly would create a gap in insulin therapy before the SC insulin is absorbed, risking a rapid return to hyperglycaemia and ketogenesis. WRONG ANSWER ANALYSIS: Option A (Stop IV insulin but continue IV fluids for 12 hours) is incorrect because stopping insulin therapy without starting a subcutaneous alternative will cause a relapse into a ketoacidotic state. Option B (Stop all IV fluids and insulin, and discharge) is incorrect as this would lead to a rapid recurrence of DKA and is unsafe. Option D (Start a sliding-scale insulin infusion) is incorrect as a variable rate intravenous insulin infusion is the standard for active DKA treatment; the goal now is to establish a long-term subcutaneous regimen, not another type of infusion. Option E (Continue IVI until ketones are 0.0 mmol/L) is incorrect because the therapeutic target for ketone clearance is less than 1.0 mmol/L; waiting for complete absence of ketones is unnecessary and unduly prolongs intravenous therapy. 49 / 60 Category: Diabetes Mellitus A 14-year-old girl presents to the Paediatric Emergency Department. She has a three-day history of increasing lethargy, persistent vomiting, diffuse abdominal pain, and marked polydipsia. On examination, she is tachycardic with poor peripheral perfusion, prompting an initial intravenous fluid bolus for signs of shock. Her initial capillary blood glucose is 28 mmol/L, and a venous blood gas confirms diabetic ketoacidosis (pH 7.08, HCO3 8 mmol/L, ketones 6.2 mmol/L). Following the bolus, the team commences maintenance intravenous fluid therapy. According to national guidelines, what is the most appropriate time to commence the fixed-rate intravenous insulin infusion? A) After the initial fluid bolus (if given) and 1 hour of rehydration fluids B) Immediately on arrival, before any fluids C) After the blood glucose falls below 14 mmol/L D) After the VBG shows a pH > 7.15 E) After the VBG shows ketones are < 1.0 mmol/L CORRECT ANSWER: The initial management priority in paediatric Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA) is to restore circulatory volume and begin correcting dehydration and electrolyte imbalances with intravenous fluids. This initial fluid resuscitation, typically over the first hour after a bolus (if required for shock), helps to improve renal perfusion, which aids glucose clearance, and begins to slowly reduce plasma osmolality. Starting the fixed-rate insulin infusion prematurely, before this initial period of fluid therapy, causes a rapid fall in blood glucose and plasma osmolality. This creates a significant osmotic gradient that can drive fluid into the brain cells, leading to the development of cerebral oedema, the most dangerous complication of DKA. Therefore, UK national guidelines (BSPED/NICE) mandate a one-hour delay after starting rehydration fluids before commencing the insulin infusion to minimise this risk and ensure patient safety. WRONG ANSWER ANALYSIS: Option B is incorrect because immediate insulin administration before fluid resuscitation significantly increases the risk of life-threatening cerebral oedema. Option C is incorrect because the 14 mmol/L blood glucose level is the threshold to add dextrose to the IV fluids, not the trigger to start the insulin infusion. Option D is incorrect because the insulin infusion is necessary to switch off ketogenesis and thereby resolve the acidosis; waiting for the pH to improve would unduly delay definitive treatment. Option E is incorrect as starting insulin is the primary mechanism to clear ketones, so waiting for them to be low is illogical and would prevent resolution of the DKA. 50 / 60 Category: Diabetes Mellitus A 5-year-old boy is an inpatient on the paediatric ward. He is reviewed three hours after commencing treatment for diabetic ketoacidosis, which was initiated without a fluid bolus, following a 48-hour rehydration schedule. He suddenly complains of a severe headache, describing it as "the worst ever," and becomes increasingly drowsy, now difficult to rouse fully. On examination, his Glasgow Coma Scale has dropped from 15 to 13, with sluggish pupillary response and a new third nerve palsy noted on the left. What is the most appropriate immediate step in his management? A) Halve the IV fluid rate and give 3% Hypertonic Saline (5 ml/kg) B) Urgent call to neurosurgery C) Administer 20 ml/kg 0.9% saline bolus D) Administer IV Dexamethasone E) Stop the insulin infusion immediately CORRECT ANSWER: This child presents with classic signs of cerebral oedema complicating DKA, a neurological emergency. The headache, decreased Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS), and new cranial nerve palsy are critical indicators. National guidelines prioritise immediate intervention to reduce intracranial pressure. The first step is to mitigate iatrogenic factors that may worsen oedema; therefore, reducing the intravenous fluid rate is crucial. Simultaneously, active treatment to lower intracranial pressure is required. Administering an osmotic agent like 3% hypertonic saline draws water out of the brain tissue, reducing swelling. This combination directly addresses the pathophysiology of cerebral oedema. This approach, along with elevating the head of the bed and seeking immediate senior/PICU assistance, forms the cornerstone of emergency management for this life-threatening complication. WRONG ANSWER ANALYSIS: Option B (Urgent call to neurosurgery) is incorrect because cerebral oedema in DKA is a medical emergency requiring immediate metabolic and osmotic therapy, not surgical intervention. Option C (Administer 20 ml/kg 0.9% saline bolus) is incorrect as a large fluid bolus would likely worsen fluid shifts into the brain, increasing intracranial pressure and exacerbating the cerebral oedema. Option D (Administer IV Dexamethasone) is incorrect because corticosteroids have been shown to be ineffective in treating cytotoxic cerebral oedema associated with DKA. Option E (Stop the insulin infusion immediately) is incorrect because continuing insulin is essential to reverse the underlying ketosis and acidosis that precipitated the entire clinical picture; stopping it would be harmful. 51 / 60 Category: Diabetes Mellitus A 16-year-old boy is on the Paediatric High Dependency Unit receiving treatment for diabetic ketoacidosis. He presented 12 hours ago with polyuria, polydipsia, and vomiting, and is currently on a fixed-rate intravenous insulin infusion with continuous cardiac monitoring. On examination, he is drowsy but rousable, with dry mucous membranes and a capillary refill time of 3 seconds. His routine blood sample now shows a potassium concentration of 2.7 mmol/L. What is the most appropriate immediate next step in his management? A) Administer a 20 mmol potassium bolus over 1 hour B) Increase the potassium concentration in the IV fluids to 60 mmol/L C) Stop the insulin infusion for 1 hour D) Administer IV Calcium Gluconate E) No change, 40 mmol/L is the maximum CORRECT ANSWER: This patient has severe hypokalaemia (K+ <3.0 mmol/L) in the context of Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA), which constitutes a medical emergency due to the high risk of cardiac arrhythmias. The cornerstone of DKA management is continued insulin therapy to reverse ketosis, but insulin drives potassium into cells, worsening the hypokalaemia. Therefore, stopping the insulin is dangerous. Standard fluid prescriptions in DKA use 40 mmol/L of potassium, which is insufficient to correct such a low level. National guidelines recommend increasing the potassium concentration in the intravenous fluids, often requiring senior paediatric input and potentially a central line for concentrations above 60 mmol/L. This approach safely and steadily replaces the potassium deficit while allowing the essential insulin infusion to continue. WRONG ANSWER ANALYSIS: Option A (Administer a 20 mmol potassium bolus over 1 hour) is incorrect because rapid boluses of potassium are dangerous, carrying a significant risk of causing fatal cardiac arrhythmias. Option C (Stop the insulin infusion for 1 hour) is incorrect as discontinuing insulin will worsen the underlying ketoacidosis, which is the primary life-threatening pathology that must be treated. Option D (Administer IV Calcium Gluconate) is incorrect because this is the treatment for hyperkalaemia with cardiac membrane instability, not hypokalaemia. Option E (No change, 40 mmol/L is the maximum) is incorrect because while 40 mmol/L is a standard concentration, it is not the maximum and is inadequate for correcting severe hypokalaemia in this clinical scenario. 52 / 60 Category: Diabetes Mellitus A 10-year-old girl presents to the Emergency Department with a 3-day history of polydipsia, polyuria, and lethargy, now with abdominal pain and vomiting. She is diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis. On examination, she is drowsy (GCS 13/15), tachycardic (HR 120 bpm), and has deep, sighing respirations. An initial venous blood gas shows a potassium level of 5.8 mmol/L, pH 7.15, and glucose 28 mmol/L. She has received an intravenous fluid bolus of 10 mL/kg 0.9% saline and is passing urine. What is the most appropriate action regarding potassium replacement in her intravenous fluids? A) Start potassium replacement (40 mmol/L) after the first bolus / 1 hour of fluids B) Start potassium replacement immediately in the first bag C) Do not add any potassium until the K+ is < 4.0 mmol/L D) Give IV Insulin bolus to drive potassium down E) Give IV Calcium Gluconate CORRECT ANSWER: In Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA), an initial serum potassium level may be normal or high, as seen here at 5.8 mmol/L. This is a pseudo-hyperkalaemia caused by the extracellular shift of potassium from within the cells in exchange for hydrogen ions due to the metabolic acidosis. However, the patient has a significant total-body potassium deficit from losses due to osmotic diuresis. Treatment with insulin will drive potassium back into the cells, and rehydration will dilute the serum concentration, causing a rapid and potentially dangerous fall in potassium levels. National guidelines (BSPED/NICE) therefore recommend starting potassium replacement early. The standard approach is to add 40 mmol/L of potassium chloride to the intravenous fluids after the initial fluid resuscitation (boluses) and once the first hour of fluid therapy is complete. This is contingent on confirming the patient is passing urine, indicating adequate renal function, and the potassium level is not dangerously high (e.g., above 6.0 mmol/L). WRONG ANSWER ANALYSIS: Option B (Start potassium replacement immediately) is incorrect because administering potassium during the initial fluid bolus, before confirming renal function and the baseline potassium level, risks causing severe hyperkalaemia. Option C (Do not add any potassium until the K+ is < 4.0) is incorrect as this delay would lead to significant and dangerous hypokalaemia once insulin infusion therapy takes full effect. Option D (Give IV Insulin bolus) is incorrect because insulin boluses are no longer recommended in paediatric DKA management due to an increased risk of rapid osmolar shifts and cerebral oedema. Option E (Give IV Calcium Gluconate) is incorrect as it is an emergency treatment to stabilise the cardiac membrane in cases of severe, life-threatening hyperkalaemia with ECG changes, which is not the situation here. 53 / 60 Category: Diabetes Mellitus A 7-year-old boy is on the Paediatric High Dependency Unit, receiving treatment for diabetic ketoacidosis. He was commenced on intravenous fluids and an insulin infusion two hours ago. He has since become increasingly agitated, complaining of a severe headache, and has vomited once. On examination, he is drowsy but rousable, with GCS 13/15. His heart rate has fallen from 120 to 80 bpm, his blood pressure has increased from 100/60 to 130/80 mmHg, and his pupils are equal and reactive. What is the most appropriate immediate management? A) Give IV Mannitol (or Hypertonic Saline) and restrict fluids B) Urgent non-contrast CT head C) Start IV Aciclovir D) Administer IV Ondansetron and paracetamol E) Increase the insulin infusion rate CORRECT ANSWER: The patient's acute neurological deterioration, featuring headache, irritability, vomiting, bradycardia, and hypertension during treatment for diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), is the classic presentation of cerebral oedema. This is a medical emergency with high mortality. National guidelines (RCPCH/NICE) mandate immediate intervention to reduce intracranial pressure. The priority is to administer an osmotic agent, such as IV Mannitol or hypertonic saline, which rapidly reduces cerebral volume by drawing fluid out of the brain tissue. Concurrently, the intravenous fluid rate must be restricted to minimise further fluid shifts that could exacerbate the oedema. This empirical treatment should be initiated immediately based on strong clinical suspicion and must not be delayed for diagnostic imaging. The head of the bed should also be elevated to 30 degrees to promote venous drainage. WRONG ANSWER ANALYSIS: Option B (Urgent non-contrast CT head) is incorrect because while imaging is important, delaying life-saving treatment to obtain a scan would be catastrophic in a rapidly deteriorating patient. Option C (Start IV Aciclovir) is incorrect as the presentation is pathognomonic for DKA-related cerebral oedema, not herpes simplex encephalitis, and this treatment would not address the critical intracranial hypertension. Option D (Administer IV Ondansetron and paracetamol) is incorrect because treating the headache and vomiting symptomatically fails to address the underlying life-threatening pathology of raised intracranial pressure. Option E (Increase the insulin infusion rate) is incorrect as this may worsen cerebral oedema by causing a more rapid fall in plasma osmolality. 54 / 60 Category: Diabetes Mellitus A 13-year-old boy is admitted to the paediatric ward for management of diabetic ketoacidosis. He has been receiving treatment for 12 hours, maintained on an intravenous infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride, 10% dextrose, and 40 mmol/L of potassium chloride. Despite this, his clinical progress has stalled. On review, he remains alert but reports mild nausea. His capillary blood glucose has been stable at 8 mmol/L for the past two hours, but his acidosis has failed to improve, with a venous pH static at 7.25 and blood ketones persistently above 3.0 mmol/L. His heart rate is 90 bpm, respiratory rate 20/min, and blood pressure 105/60 mmHg. What is the most appropriate immediate step in his management? A) Increase the insulin infusion rate (e.g., to 0.15 units/kg/hr) B) Stop the dextrose infusion C) Give a fluid bolus of 0.9% saline D) Administer IV sodium bicarbonate E) Check the infusion lines for kinks or leaks CORRECT ANSWER: In a "stalled DKA" scenario, where biochemical parameters fail to improve despite seemingly appropriate treatment, the priority is to troubleshoot practical issues before escalating medical therapy. National guidelines advocate a systematic approach. The most common reason for persistent acidosis and ketosis, when blood glucose is stable, is a failure of insulin delivery. Therefore, the first and most critical action is to physically check the entire infusion system from the pump to the patient. This includes looking for kinks in the tubing, ensuring the cannula is patent and not tissued, and confirming the infusion pump is running correctly and the syringe or bag is not empty. This simple bedside check prevents unnecessary and potentially harmful escalations in treatment, such as increasing the insulin dose when the initial dose is not even being delivered effectively. WRONG ANSWER ANALYSIS: Option A (Increase the insulin infusion rate) is incorrect because this is the logical next step only after confirming the current infusion is being delivered correctly. Option B (Stop the dextrose infusion) is incorrect as the blood glucose is stable in the target range, and stopping the dextrose could lead to hypoglycaemia, complicating management. Option C (Give a fluid bolus of 0.9% saline) is incorrect because there is no clinical indication of worsening dehydration or haemodynamic instability that would warrant a fluid bolus. Option D (Administer IV sodium bicarbonate) is incorrect as its use in DKA is not recommended in routine practice and is reserved for exceptional circumstances due to risks of paradoxical cerebral acidosis and electrolyte shifts. 55 / 60 Category: Diabetes Mellitus A 9-year-old boy is on the Paediatric High Dependency Unit. He was admitted with new-onset type 1 diabetes and diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), now four hours into treatment. He remains on a fixed-rate intravenous insulin infusion and 0.9% sodium chloride. On review, he is alert and cooperative, with good peripheral perfusion and a capillary refill time of 2 seconds. His initial capillary blood glucose was 28 mmol/L, and it has now fallen to 13 mmol/L. A repeat blood gas analysis shows a pH of 7.22, improved from 7.15 at presentation, and his blood ketones are 3.8 mmol/L. What is the most appropriate next step in his management? A) Add 5% Dextrose to the 0.9% saline infusion B) Stop the insulin infusion for 1 hour C) Give a 10 ml/kg bolus of 0.9% saline D) Increase the insulin infusion to 0.2 units/kg/hr E) Add 10% Dextrose to the 0.9% saline infusion CORRECT ANSWER: The patient's blood glucose has fallen below 14 mmol/L, but the acidosis (pH 7.22) and ketosis (3.8 mmol/L) have not yet resolved. The priority is to continue the insulin infusion to switch off ketone production and resolve the metabolic acidosis. To prevent hypoglycaemia while continuing insulin, intravenous glucose must be commenced. Current BSPED guidelines recommend starting with 10% dextrose once the blood glucose is <14 mmol/L. This allows the fixed-rate insulin infusion to continue safely, simultaneously treating the ketoacidosis and preventing a rapid drop in blood glucose, which is crucial for avoiding cerebral oedema. WRONG ANSWER ANALYSIS: Option A (Add 5% Dextrose to the 0.9% saline infusion) is less appropriate as current national guidelines have moved towards using 10% dextrose initially to provide a more robust defence against hypoglycaemia. Option B (Stop the insulin infusion for 1 hour) is incorrect because insulin is required to suppress ketogenesis and is the definitive treatment for DKA; stopping it would worsen the acidosis. Option C (Give a 10 ml/kg bolus of 0.9% saline) is incorrect as there are no signs of shock, and unnecessary fluid boluses increase the risk of cerebral oedema. Option D (Increase the insulin infusion to 0.2 units/kg/hr) is incorrect because the blood glucose is already falling appropriately, and increasing the insulin would accelerate this, significantly increasing the risk of hypoglycaemia. 56 / 60 Category: Diabetes Mellitus A 6-year-old boy, weighing 22 kg, is brought to the Paediatric Emergency Department by his parents after three days of increased thirst, polyuria, and reduced oral intake, culminating in recurrent vomiting and increasing drowsiness today. On examination, he is drowsy but rousable to voice, has dry mucous membranes, a capillary refill time of 3 seconds, and Kussmaul breathing. Initial investigations confirm diabetic ketoacidosis with a venous pH of 7.18, a blood glucose of 28.5 mmol/L, and capillary ketones of 5.2 mmol/L. After receiving appropriate intravenous fluid therapy for one hour, a fixed-rate intravenous insulin infusion is prescribed. What is the recommended starting dose for this infusion? A) 0.05 - 0.1 units/kg/hour B) 0.2 units/kg/hour C) 0.1 units/kg IV bolus, then 0.1 units/kg/hour D) 0.5 units/kg/hour E) 1.0 unit/kg/hour CORRECT ANSWER: UK guidelines, including those from BSPED and NICE, recommend a cautious approach to initiating insulin in paediatric DKA. A fixed-rate intravenous insulin infusion should be started at a dose of 0.05-0.1 units/kg/hour approximately 1-2 hours after commencing intravenous fluid therapy. This slow, steady introduction of insulin facilitates a gradual reduction in blood glucose and suppression of ketone production. The primary goal is to avoid rapid shifts in serum osmolality. A precipitous drop in glucose and osmolality can create an osmotic gradient favouring the movement of water into brain cells, significantly increasing the risk of potentially fatal cerebral oedema. Therefore, a low-dose infusion without an initial bolus is the cornerstone of safe and effective management. WRONG ANSWER ANALYSIS: Option B (0.2 units/kg/hour) is incorrect because this dose is excessively high and would lower blood glucose too quickly, increasing the risk of hypoglycaemia and cerebral oedema. Option C (0.1 units/kg IV bolus, then 0.1 units/kg/hr) is incorrect as an intravenous bolus of insulin is contraindicated in children with DKA due to the high risk of causing rapid osmolar shifts and cerebral oedema. Option D (0.5 units/kg/hour) is incorrect as it represents a dangerously high infusion rate that would lead to severe hypoglycaemia and iatrogenic complications. Option E (1.0 unit/kg/hour) is incorrect because this is a profoundly excessive and life-threatening dose for a child in DKA. 57 / 60 Category: Diabetes Mellitus A 12-year-old boy, weighing 40 kg, is admitted to the Paediatric Assessment Unit presenting with a 24-hour history of polyuria, polydipsia, lethargy, and vomiting. On examination, he is drowsy but rousable, with dry mucous membranes, reduced skin turgor, and a capillary refill time of 2 seconds. Initial bloods confirm moderate diabetic ketoacidosis with a blood glucose of 28.5 mmol/L and pH 7.18. Following initial stabilisation with a 0.9% sodium chloride bolus, his fluid deficit is calculated to be corrected over a 48-hour period. Which intravenous fluid is the most appropriate choice to provide for both deficit replacement and maintenance requirements at the start of this period? A) 0.9% Saline B) 0.9% Saline + 5% Dextrose C) 0.45% Saline + 5% Dextrose D) 0.9% Saline + 10% Dextrose E) Human Albumin Solution 4.5% CORRECT ANSWER: The priority in the initial fluid management of paediatric Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA) is the gradual restoration of circulating volume and correction of dehydration without causing a rapid fall in plasma osmolality. National guidelines from NICE and the British Society for Paediatric Endocrinology and Diabetes (BSPED) recommend 0.9% sodium chloride as the sole initial fluid for both the deficit and maintenance components of the 48-hour fluid regimen. This isotonic fluid helps to stabilise the patient's haemodynamic status and begins to correct the acidosis, while minimising the risk of the most feared complication: cerebral oedema. A rapid reduction in extracellular osmolality, which would occur with a more hypotonic fluid, can cause a fluid shift into brain cells. Dextrose-containing fluids are only introduced later in the management pathway, typically once the blood glucose level has fallen to 14-15 mmol/L, to prevent hypoglycaemia while the insulin infusion continues to correct the ketosis. WRONG ANSWER ANALYSIS: Option B (0.9% Saline + 5% Dextrose) is incorrect because adding dextrose at the outset is inappropriate when the patient is hyperglycaemic and would counteract the goal of gradually lowering blood glucose. Option C (0.45% Saline + 5% Dextrose) is incorrect as this is a hypotonic solution which would cause a dangerous, rapid drop in plasma osmolality, significantly increasing the risk of cerebral oedema. Option D (0.9% Saline + 10% Dextrose) is incorrect as a higher concentration of dextrose is only used if blood glucose falls rapidly or below 5 mmol/L despite using 5% dextrose, which is not the initial scenario. Option E (Human Albumin Solution 4.5%) is incorrect because it is a colloid reserved for specific situations of shock unresponsive to crystalloid boluses and has no role in the routine deficit and maintenance fluid management of DKA. 58 / 60 Category: Diabetes Mellitus A 10-year-old boy presents to the Emergency Department with a 2-day history of polyuria, polydipsia, and increasing lethargy, now accompanied by abdominal pain and vomiting. He has a known diagnosis of type 1 diabetes and is suspected to be in diabetic ketoacidosis. On assessment, he is drowsy but rousable, tachycardic, and has a capillary refill time of 3 seconds. His weight is 30 kg. His breathing is deep and rapid, and mucous membranes are dry. A venous blood gas analysis reveals a pH of 7.15 and a bicarbonate of 10 mmol/L. What is the most appropriate initial fluid bolus to administer? A) 300ml 0.9% saline (10 ml/kg) B) 600ml 0.9% saline (20 ml/kg) C) 100ml 0.9% saline (shock dose) D) 300ml 0.45% saline (10 ml/kg) E) 300ml Human Albumin Solution (10 ml/kg) CORRECT ANSWER: This child presents with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) and clinical signs of shock, specifically tachycardia and a prolonged capillary refill time. According to UK guidelines from BSPED and NICE, initial fluid resuscitation in DKA must be cautious to mitigate the significant risk of cerebral oedema. The standard, evidence-based approach is a single, judicious bolus of 10 ml/kg of an isotonic crystalloid (0.9% sodium chloride) over one hour. This volume (10 ml/kg x 30kg = 300ml) aims to restore circulatory volume without causing rapid shifts in serum osmolality, which is a key precipitant for cerebral oedema. Further boluses should only be given in cases of persistent shock after senior consultation. This cautious approach is a cornerstone of safe DKA management. WRONG ANSWER ANALYSIS: Option B (600ml 0.9% saline) is incorrect because a 20 ml/kg bolus, while standard in other forms of paediatric shock, is explicitly advised against in DKA due to the heightened risk of cerebral oedema. Option C (100ml 0.9% saline) is incorrect as this volume is therapeutically inadequate to correct shock in a 30kg child. Option D (300ml 0.45% saline) is incorrect because the use of a hypotonic solution like 0.45% saline for resuscitation would cause a rapid drop in plasma osmolality, further increasing the risk of cerebral oedema. Option E (300ml Human Albumin Solution) is incorrect as colloids are not recommended for initial fluid resuscitation in DKA; 0.9% sodium chloride is the first-line choice. 59 / 60 Category: Diabetes Mellitus A 5-year-old boy, weighing 20 kg, presents to the Paediatric Emergency Department. His parents report a 3-day history of increased thirst and urination, lethargy, and recent onset of abdominal pain with vomiting. On examination, he appears drowsy but rousable, with a heart rate of 130 beats per minute, blood pressure of 90/50 mmHg, and a capillary refill time of 2 seconds. He has deep, sighing respirations. A venous blood gas analysis reveals a pH of 7.25 and a bicarbonate level of 14 mmol/L. What is the most appropriate initial step in his fluid management? A) 200ml 0.9% saline bolus (10 ml/kg) B) 400ml 0.9% saline bolus (20 ml/kg) C) Start IV 0.9% saline deficit replacement over 48 hours (no bolus) D) Start IV 0.9% saline + 5% dextrose E) Start fixed-rate IV insulin infusion (no fluids) CORRECT ANSWER: This child has diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) but is not in circulatory shock. Tachycardia is expected due to dehydration and acidosis, but the normal blood pressure and capillary refill time are reassuring. National guidelines (BSPED/NICE) are clear that intravenous fluid boluses should be reserved only for children with DKA who show signs of shock. The primary aim is to restore circulating volume and correct dehydration slowly to minimise the risk of cerebral oedema, a potentially fatal complication of DKA treatment. Therefore, the correct management is to start rehydration by calculating the total fluid requirement (maintenance plus deficit, assuming a 5% deficit in moderate DKA) and administering this using 0.9% sodium chloride over 48 hours. An insulin infusion is typically started one hour after commencing fluids. WRONG ANSWER ANALYSIS: Option A (10 ml/kg 0.9% saline bolus) is incorrect because fluid boluses are not indicated in the absence of shock (defined by hypotension and poor peripheral perfusion). Option B (20 ml/kg 0.9% saline bolus) is incorrect as this larger bolus is also not indicated and further increases the risk of cerebral oedema. Option D (Start IV 0.9% saline + 5% dextrose) is incorrect because dextrose is only added to the infusion fluid once the blood glucose has fallen to approximately 14 mmol/L. Option E (Start fixed-rate IV insulin infusion (no fluids)) is incorrect as fluid resuscitation must always precede the commencement of insulin to correct dehydration and improve tissue perfusion. 60 / 60 Category: Diabetes Mellitus A 14-year-old girl with a known history of Type 1 diabetes presents to the Paediatric Emergency Department after 12 hours of increasing lethargy, vomiting, and diffuse abdominal pain. She has missed several insulin doses. On examination, she is alert, though appearing tired, with a heart rate of 110 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg. Capillary refill time is 2 seconds, and her respiratory rate is 24 breaths per minute with no signs of respiratory distress. A venous blood gas analysis shows a pH of 7.20, bicarbonate of 12 mmol/L, and blood ketones of 4.5 mmol/L. What is the most accurate classification of her diabetic ketoacidosis? A) Moderate DKA B) Mild DKA C) Severe DKA D) Hyperosmolar state E) Impending respiratory failure CORRECT ANSWER: The classification of Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA) severity is guided by the degree of acidosis, primarily the venous pH and bicarbonate level. According to the British Society for Paediatric Endocrinology and Diabetes (BSPED) guidelines, moderate DKA is defined by a pH between 7.1 and 7.19. However, a bicarbonate level below 10 mmol/L also indicates moderate severity. In this case, the patient's pH of 7.20 is on the borderline with mild DKA, but her bicarbonate of 12 mmol/L and significant ketonaemia (4.5 mmol/L) firmly place her in the moderate category. Accurate classification is crucial as it dictates the initial fluid management strategy, including the estimated dehydration percentage and the rate of fluid resuscitation. This patient requires careful monitoring and management as per the moderate DKA protocol to prevent progression to severe acidosis and complications like cerebral oedema. WRONG ANSWER ANALYSIS: Option B (Mild DKA) is incorrect because although the pH is 7.20, the bicarbonate of 12 mmol/L is below the typical threshold for mild DKA (pH 7.2-7.29 and/or bicarb <15 mmol/L). Option C (Severe DKA) is incorrect as this is defined by a venous pH of less than 7.1 or a bicarbonate level below 5 mmol/L. Option D (Hyperosmolar state) is incorrect because the diagnosis is clearly DKA, and there is no information to suggest a hyperosmolar hyperglycaemic state, which involves extreme hyperglycaemia and hyperosmolality with minimal ketosis. Option E (Impending respiratory failure) is incorrect as the patient is described as alert with stable blood pressure, which is not consistent with respiratory failure. Your score isThe average score is 3% 0% Restart quiz Anonymous feedback Send feedback